The official notification lists Database Management, basic concepts, RDBMS, data types, tables, views, transactions, concurrency and reports under Computer Software. These 500 practice bits are expanded from those official syllabus headings
1001. What is a database?
A) Collection of related data B) Operating system C) CPU D) Printer
Answer: A
1002. What is DBMS?
A) Database Management System B) Data Backup Machine System C) Digital Binary Management Software D) None
Answer: A
1003. The main purpose of a DBMS is to:
A) Manage data B) Manufacture hardware C) Increase monitor size D) Print documents
Answer: A
1004. DBMS stands for:
A) Database Management System B) Data Binary Management System C) Database Machine System D) Digital Management Software
Answer: A
1005. A collection of related records is called a:
A) File B) CPU C) Program D) Port
Answer: A
1006. Raw facts and figures are called:
A) Data B) Information C) Software D) Query
Answer: A
1007. Processed data is called:
A) Information B) Hardware C) Memory D) Table
Answer: A
1008. A database can be used to store:
A) Structured data B) Only images C) Only audio D) Only programs
Answer: A
1009. Which is a database management system?
A) MySQL B) Keyboard C) Monitor D) Printer
Answer: A
1010. Which is NOT a DBMS?
A) MySQL B) Oracle C) Microsoft Access D) Keyboard
Answer: D
1011. DBMS provides a method to:
A) Store and retrieve data B) Manufacture RAM C) Display video only D) Scan documents
Answer: A
1012. Data redundancy means:
A) Unnecessary duplication of data B) Data encryption C) Data deletion D) Data sorting
Answer: A
1013. One advantage of a DBMS is:
A) Reduced data redundancy B) Increased duplication C) No security D) No data organization
Answer: A
1014. Database security protects data from:
A) Unauthorized access B) Formatting C) Printing D) Sorting
Answer: A
1015. Data integrity means:
A) Accuracy and consistency of data B) Data duplication C) Data deletion D) Data compression
Answer: A
1016. A database administrator is commonly called:
A) DBA B) CPU C) LAN D) GUI
Answer: A
1017. DBA stands for:
A) Database Administrator B) Data Binary Application C) Database Application D) Digital Backup Administrator
Answer: A
1018. Who is responsible for managing a database system?
A) DBA B) Keyboard C) Printer D) Monitor
Answer: A
1019. A DBMS allows users to:
A) Create and manage databases B) Manufacture CPUs C) Repair monitors D) Increase RAM physically
Answer: A
1020. Which operation retrieves data from a database?
A) Query B) Formatting C) Printing D) Scanning
Answer: A
1021. A database query is used to:
A) Request specific data B) Turn off the computer C) Format a hard disk D) Install RAM
Answer: A
1022. Database software provides:
A) Data management facilities B) Only gaming facilities C) Only printing facilities D) Only networking facilities
Answer: A
1023. Which is an example of database information?
A) Student records B) Keyboard keys C) Monitor pixels D) CPU fan
Answer: A
1024. A database may contain:
A) Tables B) Records C) Fields D) All of these
Answer: D
1025. A field represents:
A) A data attribute B) A complete database C) A computer D) A printer
Answer: A
1026. A record is generally a collection of:
A) Related fields B) CPUs C) Tables only D) Programs
Answer: A
1027. A table consists of:
A) Rows and columns B) CPUs and RAM C) Files and folders only D) Pixels
Answer: A
1028. In a database table, a row is commonly called a:
A) Record B) Field C) Attribute D) Column
Answer: A
1029. In a database table, a column is commonly called a:
A) Field B) Record C) Tuple only D) File
Answer: A
1030. A database schema describes:
A) Structure of the database B) Monitor resolution C) Keyboard layout D) CPU speed
Answer: A
1031. Database management can include:
A) Storing data B) Retrieving data C) Updating data D) All of these
Answer: D
1032. Which feature helps prevent unauthorized database access?
A) Security B) Formatting C) Printing D) Sorting
Answer: A
1033. Backup is used to:
A) Protect data from loss B) Delete all records C) Increase CPU speed D) Change monitor size
Answer: A
1034. Recovery means:
A) Restoring database after failure B) Formatting text C) Printing records D) Sorting files
Answer: A
1035. A database system generally consists of:
A) Data and software B) Only hardware C) Only keyboard D) Only monitor
Answer: A
1036. Which is a common database application?
A) Banking system B) Keyboard C) Mouse D) Speaker
Answer: A
1037. A student database may contain:
A) Student ID B) Name C) Marks D) All of these
Answer: D
1038. Database normalization primarily helps reduce:
A) Redundancy B) CPU speed C) Screen size D) Printer speed
Answer: A
1039. Data consistency means:
A) Data remains correct and logically consistent B) Data is always duplicated C) Data is deleted D) Data is encrypted only
Answer: A
1040. Which is a major DBMS function?
A) Data storage B) Data retrieval C) Data updating D) All of these
Answer: D
1041. A database user interacts with the database through:
A) Database application/interface B) CPU fan C) Power supply D) Monitor cable
Answer: A
1042. Database systems can be used in:
A) Hospitals B) Banks C) Schools D) All of these
Answer: D
1043. Which helps organize information in a database?
A) Tables B) Speakers C) Fans D) Power cables
Answer: A
1044. The structure of a database is known as its:
A) Schema B) Printer C) Driver D) Browser
Answer: A
1045. A database management system can control:
A) Data access B) Data storage C) Data modification D) All of these
Answer: D
1046. Data duplication is also known as:
A) Redundancy B) Encryption C) Authentication D) Compression
Answer: A
1047. Which improves data reliability?
A) Integrity controls B) Data duplication C) Unauthorized access D) Random deletion
Answer: A
1048. A DBMS can provide multiple users with:
A) Controlled access to data B) Only printing C) Only audio D) Only video
Answer: A
1049. Database management includes maintaining:
A) Stored data B) Queries C) Database structures D) All of these
Answer: D
1050. Which is an example of structured data?
A) Student table B) Random text on paper C) Photograph alone D) Audio recording alone
Answer: A
1051. What is data retrieval?
A) Obtaining stored data B) Deleting data C) Encrypting data D) Formatting data
Answer: A
1052. What is data modification?
A) Changing stored data B) Viewing monitor C) Printing keyboard keys D) Starting CPU
Answer: A
1053. What is data insertion?
A) Adding new data B) Deleting data C) Formatting database D) Closing database
Answer: A
1054. What is data deletion?
A) Removing stored data B) Adding records C) Sorting data D) Backing up data
Answer: A
1055. Which database operation changes an existing record?
A) Update B) Insert C) Create D) Backup
Answer: A
1056. Which operation adds a new record?
A) Insert B) Delete C) Update D) Drop
Answer: A
1057. Which operation removes a record?
A) Delete B) Insert C) Update D) Select
Answer: A
1058. Database software can generate:
A) Reports B) CPU chips C) RAM modules D) Keyboards
Answer: A
1059. A report presents database information in:
A) Organized form B) Random form only C) Binary hardware D) Audio form only
Answer: A
1060. A DBMS can enforce:
A) Data constraints B) Monitor resolution C) Keyboard size D) Speaker volume
Answer: A
1061. Database users may have different:
A) Access privileges B) CPU models C) Monitor cables D) Keyboard layouts
Answer: A
1062. Authentication is used to:
A) Verify user identity B) Delete tables C) Sort records D) Print documents
Answer: A
1063. Authorization determines:
A) What an authenticated user is allowed to do B) CPU speed C) Monitor size D) File extension
Answer: A
1064. Which is related to database security?
A) User permissions B) Monitor brightness C) Keyboard layout D) Printer paper
Answer: A
1065. Database backup creates:
A) A copy of data for recovery B) A new CPU C) A monitor driver D) A keyboard
Answer: A
1066. Database recovery is especially important after:
A) System failure B) Printing C) Typing D) Viewing
Answer: A
1067. A DBMS can help maintain:
A) Data integrity B) Keyboard speed C) Monitor resolution D) Mouse sensitivity
Answer: A
1068. A database can be accessed by:
A) Authorized users B) Only printers C) Only monitors D) Nobody
Answer: A
1069. Database design determines:
A) How data is organized B) Screen brightness C) CPU temperature D) Keyboard color
Answer: A
1070. Database records should generally be:
A) Organized B) Randomly duplicated C) Uncontrolled D) Unprotected
Answer: A
1071. Which reduces the chance of inconsistent duplicate information?
A) Proper database design B) Random copying C) Manual duplication D) Uncontrolled access
Answer: A
1072. Database management is concerned primarily with:
A) Data B) Monitor pixels C) Keyboard switches D) Speakers
Answer: A
1073. Which component stores organized data in an RDBMS?
A) Table B) Monitor C) Printer D) Keyboard
Answer: A
1074. A database may have:
A) Multiple tables B) Only one field C) No records D) No structure
Answer: A
1075. Relationships between data are important in:
A) Relational databases B) Monitors C) Keyboards D) Speakers
Answer: A
1076. Which is a benefit of database management?
A) Easier data retrieval B) More data duplication C) Less security D) Random organization
Answer: A
1077. Data can be sorted and filtered using:
A) Database operations B) Power supply C) CPU fan D) Monitor cable
Answer: A
1078. Database management supports:
A) Data organization B) Data access C) Data maintenance D) All of these
Answer: D
1079. The main resource managed by a DBMS is:
A) Data B) Electricity C) Monitor D) Keyboard
Answer: A
1080. DBMS is primarily designed to manage:
A) Databases B) Printers C) Speakers D) Power supplies
Answer: A
🔹 1081–1160: RDBMS & Relational Concepts
1081. RDBMS stands for:
A) Relational Database Management System B) Remote Database Management System C) Random Data Management System D) Relational Data Machine System
Answer: A
1082. An RDBMS stores data mainly in:
A) Tables B) Images C) Audio files D) Programs
Answer: A
1083. A table is also called a:
A) Relation B) Processor C) Query only D) Database server
Answer: A
1084. A row in a relational table is called a:
A) Tuple B) Attribute C) Domain D) Schema
Answer: A
1085. A column in a relational table is called an:
A) Attribute B) Tuple C) Record set D) Database
Answer: A
1086. The number of rows in a relation is called its:
A) Cardinality B) Degree C) Domain D) Key
Answer: A
1087. The number of columns in a relation is called its:
A) Degree B) Cardinality C) Tuple D) Record
Answer: A
1088. A relation consists of:
A) Rows and columns B) CPUs and RAM C) Files and folders only D) Images only
Answer: A
1089. Which identifies a row uniquely?
A) Primary key B) Foreign key only C) Attribute name D) Table name
Answer: A
1090. A primary key must be:
A) Unique B) Always duplicated C) Empty D) Random
Answer: A
1091. Can a primary key normally contain duplicate values?
A) No B) Yes C) Always D) Only in reports
Answer: A
1092. Can a primary key contain NULL values?
A) No B) Yes C) Always D) Only during printing
Answer: A
1093. A foreign key is used to:
A) Establish relationships between tables B) Increase RAM C) Print data D) Format text
Answer: A
1094. A foreign key generally refers to:
A) A key in another table B) A printer C) A CPU D) A monitor
Answer: A
1095. A candidate key is:
A) A possible unique identifier B) A printer key C) A keyboard key D) A password only
Answer: A
1096. A primary key is selected from:
A) Candidate keys B) Foreign keys only C) Reports D) Views
Answer: A
1097. A composite key consists of:
A) More than one attribute B) Only one attribute C) No attribute D) A password
Answer: A
1098. A simple key consists of:
A) One attribute B) Many tables C) Several databases D) Multiple reports
Answer: A
1099. A relationship connects:
A) Tables/data entities B) Printers C) CPUs D) Monitors
Answer: A
1100. A one-to-one relationship means:
A) One record relates to one record B) One record relates to many only C) Many relate to many only D) No relationship
Answer: A
1101. A one-to-many relationship means:
A) One record can relate to many records B) Only one record exists C) Many tables are deleted D) No records exist
Answer: A
1102. A many-to-many relationship means:
A) Many records relate to many records B) One record only C) No relationship D) One field only
Answer: A
1103. A relationship between tables is commonly implemented using:
A) Keys B) Printers C) Monitors D) Speakers
Answer: A
1104. Referential integrity concerns:
A) Valid relationships between related tables B) Monitor resolution C) Printer speed D) CPU clock speed
Answer: A
1105. An RDBMS is based on the:
A) Relational model B) Printing model C) Video model D) Audio model
Answer: A
1106. SQL is commonly used with:
A) Relational databases B) Keyboards C) Monitors D) Scanners
Answer: A
1107. SQL stands for:
A) Structured Query Language B) Simple Question Language C) System Query Link D) Structured Queue Logic
Answer: A
1108. Which language is widely used for relational database operations?
A) SQL B) HTML C) CSS D) XML only
Answer: A
1109. Which statement retrieves records in SQL?
A) SELECT B) PRINT C) SHOWSCREEN D) DISPLAYCPU
Answer: A
1110. Which SQL command adds records?
A) INSERT B) ADDROWONLY C) APPENDCPU D) PUTDATA
Answer: A
1111. Which SQL command changes existing records?
A) UPDATE B) CHANGEFILE C) MODIFYCPU D) ALTERSCREEN
Answer: A
1112. Which SQL command removes records?
A) DELETE B) REMOVECPU C) ERASESCREEN D) CLEARDBMS
Answer: A
1113. Which SQL command creates a table?
A) CREATE TABLE B) MAKE TABLE ONLY C) NEW TABLE D) TABLE START
Answer: A
1114. Which SQL command removes a table structure?
A) DROP TABLE B) DELETE TABLE ROW C) REMOVE RECORD D) CLEAR TABLE DATA
Answer: A
1115. Which SQL command changes table structure?
A) ALTER TABLE B) CHANGE TABLE ONLY C) MODIFY DATABASE ONLY D) UPDATE TABLE DATA
Answer: A
1116. A relational database contains:
A) Relations/tables B) Only programs C) Only images D) Only audio
Answer: A
1117. A field value must generally conform to its:
A) Data type/domain B) Monitor type C) CPU type D) Printer type
Answer: A
1118. A domain defines:
A) Valid values for an attribute B) Number of monitors C) CPU speed D) Printer size
Answer: A
1119. A relational schema defines:
A) Structure of relations B) Keyboard layout C) Monitor resolution D) CPU architecture
Answer: A
1120. Which is a relational database system?
A) MySQL B) Paint C) Calculator D) Notepad
Answer: A
1121. Oracle is a:
A) Database management system B) Keyboard C) Printer D) Monitor
Answer: A
1122. PostgreSQL is a:
A) Relational database system B) Word processor C) Browser only D) Printer driver
Answer: A
1123. Microsoft SQL Server is a:
A) RDBMS B) Keyboard driver C) Monitor D) Spreadsheet only
Answer: A
1124. Microsoft Access is commonly used as:
A) Database software B) Antivirus only C) Operating system D) Printer
Answer: A
1125. A table should generally have:
A) Unique table name within its database context B) No name C) Only numbers D) No columns
Answer: A
1126. A row represents:
A) One instance/record B) One table only C) A database server D) A query language
Answer: A
1127. A column represents:
A) An attribute B) A complete database C) A server D) A report only
Answer: A
1128. The intersection of a row and column contains a:
A) Value B) Table C) Database D) Query
Answer: A
1129. NULL generally represents:
A) Missing/unknown/not applicable value B) Zero always C) Blank space always D) False always
Answer: A
1130. NULL is different from:
A) Zero B) Missing value C) Unknown D) Not applicable
Answer: A
1131. A primary key is mainly used for:
A) Unique row identification B) Formatting reports C) Printing tables D) Creating graphics
Answer: A
1132. A foreign key helps maintain:
A) Referential integrity B) Screen brightness C) CPU temperature D) Printer alignment
Answer: A
1133. A table without a primary key:
A) Can exist in many database systems B) Cannot ever exist C) Is always corrupted D) Is always deleted
Answer: A
1134. Which key can contain duplicate values in a referencing table?
A) Foreign key B) Primary key C) Candidate key D) Unique identifier
Answer: A
1135. A unique constraint generally prevents:
A) Duplicate values B) Table creation C) Queries D) Reports
Answer: A
1136. Database relationships help:
A) Connect related information B) Increase screen size C) Change CPU speed D) Print photographs
Answer: A
1137. A relational model organizes data into:
A) Relations B) Audio tracks C) Slides D) Images
Answer: A
1138. An entity can represent:
A) Real-world object/concept B) Only a printer C) Only a CPU D) Only software
Answer: A
1139. Examples of entities include:
A) Student B) Employee C) Product D) All of these
Answer: D
1140. An attribute describes:
A) An entity B) A printer cable C) A monitor D) A CPU fan
Answer: A
1141. Student Name can be an:
A) Attribute B) Database server C) Table relationship D) DBMS
Answer: A
1142. Student ID can be used as:
A) Primary key B) Monitor setting C) Printer port D) Operating system
Answer: A
1143. A relational database may contain:
A) Related tables B) Only one record C) No keys D) No attributes
Answer: A
1144. A foreign key is usually located in the:
A) Referencing table B) Monitor C) CPU D) Keyboard
Answer: A
1145. The referenced key is commonly a:
A) Primary key B) Printer key C) Function key D) Shortcut key
Answer: A
1146. A candidate key must be capable of:
A) Uniquely identifying a record B) Printing a report C) Starting Windows D) Encrypting a file
Answer: A
1147. A superkey is a set of attributes that:
A) Uniquely identifies rows B) Deletes records C) Creates reports D) Prints tables
Answer: A
1148. A minimal superkey is a:
A) Candidate key B) Foreign key C) Report D) View
Answer: A
1149. Relational databases support relationships using:
A) Keys B) Speakers C) Printers D) Monitors
Answer: A
1150. Referential integrity prevents:
A) Invalid references between related tables B) Keyboard errors C) Monitor failures D) Printer jams
Answer: A
1151. A parent table generally contains the:
A) Referenced key B) Printer driver C) Query result only D) Report
Answer: A
1152. A child table generally contains the:
A) Foreign key B) Operating system C) Monitor driver D) Printer
Answer: A
1153. In relational databases, tables are related using:
A) Common keys B) Common monitors C) Common printers D) Common CPUs
Answer: A
1154. Data independence means:
A) Ability to change database structure at one level without major changes at another B) Data deletion C) Data duplication D) Data encryption
Answer: A
1155. Logical data independence concerns changes to the:
A) Logical schema B) Keyboard C) Monitor D) CPU
Answer: A
1156. Physical data independence concerns changes to:
A) Physical storage B) Table values only C) Reports only D) Queries only
Answer: A
1157. RDBMS provides structured management of:
A) Related data B) Keyboard keys C) Images only D) Audio only
Answer: A
1158. Which is fundamental to relational databases?
A) Tables B) Slides C) Frames D) Printers
Answer: A
1159. Which term represents a row in relational terminology?
A) Tuple B) Attribute C) Domain D) Schema
Answer: A
1160. Which term represents a column?
A) Attribute B) Tuple C) Relation D) Record set
Answer: A
🔹 1161–1240: Data Types & Tables
1161. A data type defines:
A) Type of data stored B) Table color C) Printer size D) CPU speed
Answer: A
1162. Which data type stores whole numbers?
A) Integer B) Character C) Date D) Boolean
Answer: A
1163. Which data type is suitable for text?
A) Character/String B) Integer C) Boolean D) Date only
Answer: A
1164. Which data type stores true/false values?
A) Boolean B) Integer C) Character D) Date
Answer: A
1165. Which data type is suitable for dates?
A) Date B) Integer C) Boolean D) Character only
Answer: A
1166. Decimal numbers are commonly stored using:
A) Numeric/Decimal data types B) Boolean only C) Date only D) Character only
Answer: A
1167. A string is generally:
A) Sequence of characters B) Numeric value only C) Boolean value D) Date only
Answer: A
1168. VARCHAR generally represents:
A) Variable-length character data B) Integer data C) Date data D) Boolean data
Answer: A
1169. CHAR generally represents:
A) Character data B) Floating-point data only C) Date only D) Image only
Answer: A
1170. Integer data represents:
A) Whole numbers B) Text C) Images D) Audio
Answer: A
1171. Floating-point data represents:
A) Numbers with fractional parts B) Only text C) Dates only D) True/False only
Answer: A
1172. Boolean data normally has values such as:
A) True/False B) January/February C) Red/Blue D) A/B only
Answer: A
1173. A date data type stores:
A) Date values B) Only whole numbers C) Passwords only D) Images
Answer: A
1174. A time data type stores:
A) Time values B) Text only C) Images D) Tables
Answer: A
1175. Which data type may be used for large text?
A) Text/Large text B) Integer C) Boolean D) Date
Answer: A
1176. Which is NOT normally a basic numeric type?
A) Character B) Integer C) Decimal D) Floating-point
Answer: A
1177. Data type selection should depend on:
A) Nature of data B) Monitor size C) Keyboard type D) Printer speed
Answer: A
1178. Choosing an appropriate data type can improve:
A) Data integrity and storage efficiency B) Monitor brightness C) Keyboard speed D) Printer size
Answer: A
1179. A table is used to:
A) Organize related data B) Play audio C) Display videos only D) Control CPU fan
Answer: A
1180. A table consists of:
A) Rows and columns B) Pixels and frames C) CPUs and RAM D) Printers and scanners
Answer: A
1181. A row contains:
A) Related field values B) Only table names C) Only column names D) Database schema only
Answer: A
1182. A column contains:
A) Values of one attribute B) Multiple tables C) Databases D) Reports
Answer: A
1183. A table name should generally be:
A) Meaningful B) Random C) Empty D) Only numeric
Answer: A
1184. A database can contain:
A) Multiple tables B) Only one column C) No rows D) No fields
Answer: A
1185. Which operation adds a row to a table?
A) INSERT B) DELETE C) UPDATE D) DROP
Answer: A
1186. Which operation changes existing values?
A) UPDATE B) INSERT C) DROP D) CREATE
Answer: A
1187. Which operation removes rows?
A) DELETE B) INSERT C) UPDATE D) CREATE
Answer: A
1188. Which command is used to retrieve data?
A) SELECT B) DELETE C) UPDATE D) INSERT
Answer: A
1189. Which SQL clause specifies conditions?
A) WHERE B) TABLE C) DATABASE D) COLUMN
Answer: A
1190. Which clause sorts query results?
A) ORDER BY B) SORT TABLE C) ARRANGE D) SORT DATA
Answer: A
1191. ASC means:
A) Ascending B) Access C) Automatic System Control D) Account Security Control
Answer: A
1192. DESC means:
A) Descending B) Description only C) Database Security Control D) Data Entry System Control
Answer: A
1193. A constraint is used to:
A) Restrict valid data B) Increase monitor size C) Print tables D) Play music
Answer: A
1194. NOT NULL prevents:
A) NULL values B) Duplicate tables C) Queries D) Reports
Answer: A
1195. UNIQUE constraint prevents:
A) Duplicate values B) All values C) Tables D) Queries
Answer: A
1196. PRIMARY KEY provides:
A) Unique identification B) Printing C) Sorting only D) Encryption only
Answer: A
1197. FOREIGN KEY provides:
A) Relationship between tables B) Monitor control C) Printer control D) CPU control
Answer: A
1198. CHECK constraint is used to:
A) Restrict values according to a condition B) Delete a table C) Print records D) Create a monitor
Answer: A
1199. DEFAULT provides:
A) A default value B) A printer C) A table name only D) A database server
Answer: A
1200. Constraints help maintain:
A) Data integrity B) Screen brightness C) CPU speed D) Printer speed
Answer: A
1201. Which is a table-level object?
A) Table B) Keyboard C) Monitor D) CPU
Answer: A
1202. The column name should describe:
A) The attribute/data it stores B) The printer model C) CPU speed D) Monitor size
Answer: A
1203. A table should generally avoid:
A) Unnecessary duplication B) Meaningful columns C) Primary keys D) Appropriate data types
Answer: A
1204. A table’s primary key should:
A) Uniquely identify each row B) Contain duplicate values C) Always be NULL D) Be a report
Answer: A
1205. A table can contain:
A) Different data types in different columns B) Only integers C) Only text D) Only dates
Answer: A
1206. A column may contain:
A) Values of the same defined attribute/type B) Entire databases C) Multiple tables D) Reports only
Answer: A
1207. A database table is similar to:
A) A structured grid B) A printer C) A monitor D) A CPU
Answer: A
1208. Rows in a table represent:
A) Records B) Attributes C) Database schemas D) Queries
Answer: A
1209. Columns represent:
A) Fields/attributes B) Records C) Databases D) Reports
Answer: A
1210. The number of fields in a table represents its:
A) Degree B) Cardinality C) Database size only D) Query count
Answer: A
1211. The number of records represents:
A) Cardinality B) Degree C) Schema D) Domain
Answer: A
1212. A table containing 10 columns has degree:
A) 10 B) 20 C) 5 D) 100
Answer: A
1213. A table containing 50 records has cardinality:
A) 50 B) 5 C) 10 D) 500
Answer: A
1214. A field containing “Hyderabad” is likely:
A) Character/String B) Integer C) Boolean D) Date
Answer: A
1215. A field containing 25 is likely:
A) Integer B) Boolean C) Date D) Text necessarily
Answer: A
1216. A field containing 75.50 is likely:
A) Decimal/Numeric B) Boolean C) Date D) Character necessarily
Answer: A
1217. A field containing 15-08-2026 is likely:
A) Date B) Boolean C) Integer D) Binary
Answer: A
1218. A field containing True/False is:
A) Boolean B) Integer C) Date D) Character only
Answer: A
1219. A telephone number may require:
A) Character/string type B) Boolean only C) Date only D) Floating-point only
Answer: A
1220. Why can phone numbers be stored as text?
A) Leading zeros and symbols may matter B) They are always dates C) They are Boolean D) They are tables
Answer: A
1221. A database field should have:
A) Appropriate data type B) Random data type C) No type D) Printer type
Answer: A
1222. A table definition specifies:
A) Columns and their properties B) Monitor settings C) Keyboard layout D) CPU voltage
Answer: A
1223. A column can have:
A) Name and data type B) Monitor and printer C) CPU and RAM D) Keyboard and mouse
Answer: A
1224. A row can be uniquely identified by:
A) Primary key B) Table color C) Column width D) Report title
Answer: A
1225. Which constraint ensures a value is provided?
A) NOT NULL B) ORDER BY C) SELECT D) GROUP BY
Answer: A
1226. Which constraint can provide an automatic value when none is supplied?
A) DEFAULT B) UNIQUE C) PRIMARY KEY D) FOREIGN KEY
Answer: A
1227. Which constraint can enforce a condition on values?
A) CHECK B) SELECT C) ORDER BY D) VIEW
Answer: A
1228. Which constraint identifies rows uniquely?
A) PRIMARY KEY B) DEFAULT C) CHECK D) NOT NULL only
Answer: A
1229. Which constraint establishes a reference to another table?
A) FOREIGN KEY B) CHECK C) DEFAULT D) UNIQUE only
Answer: A
1230. Data validation helps ensure:
A) Appropriate values are entered B) CPU speed increases C) Monitor size increases D) Printer becomes faster
Answer: A
1231. Which is important when designing tables?
A) Correct data types B) Appropriate keys C) Constraints D) All of these
Answer: D
1232. An empty value is not necessarily:
A) Zero B) NULL C) Missing D) Unknown
Answer: A
1233. NULL may mean:
A) Unknown or unavailable B) Always zero C) Always false D) Always blank string
Answer: A
1234. A database field for salary is likely:
A) Numeric/Decimal B) Boolean C) Date only D) Image only
Answer: A
1235. A database field for employee joining date is likely:
A) Date B) Boolean C) Integer only D) Image
Answer: A
1236. A database field for employee name is likely:
A) Character/String B) Boolean C) Date D) Integer
Answer: A
1237. A table stores:
A) Related records B) Only queries C) Only reports D) Only indexes
Answer: A
1238. A well-designed table helps:
A) Organize data efficiently B) Increase monitor resolution C) Increase keyboard speed D) Reduce electricity
Answer: A
1239. Table design should consider:
A) Attributes and relationships B) Printer paper C) Monitor size D) Keyboard type
Answer: A
1240. Correct table design contributes to:
A) Data integrity B) Data duplication C) Data confusion D) Unauthorized access
Answer: A
🔹 1241–1320: Keys, Constraints & Relationships
1241. The primary key is used to:
A) Uniquely identify records B) Create graphics C) Print reports D) Store images only
Answer: A
1242. A primary key must be:
A) Unique and non-NULL B) Duplicate C) NULL D) Optional in every sense
Answer: A
1243. A foreign key can:
A) Reference another table B) Increase RAM C) Change CPU speed D) Print records
Answer: A
1244. A candidate key is:
A) A key that can uniquely identify records B) A report C) A view D) A query result
Answer: A
1245. A composite key contains:
A) Multiple attributes B) No attributes C) One table only D) One report
Answer: A
1246. A surrogate key is generally:
A) Artificial/system-generated identifier B) Natural descriptive field only C) Report title D) Database name
Answer: A
1247. A natural key is based on:
A) Meaningful real-world data B) Random monitor values C) CPU speed D) Printer serial number necessarily
Answer: A
1248. A unique key ensures:
A) No duplicate values B) No tables C) No queries D) No reports
Answer: A
1249. Referential integrity ensures:
A) Foreign key references are valid B) Printer works C) Monitor displays color D) CPU boots
Answer: A
1250. A parent record is referenced by a:
A) Child record B) Monitor C) Printer D) CPU
Answer: A
1251. A child table generally contains:
A) Foreign key B) Operating system C) Monitor driver D) Printer
Answer: A
1252. A one-to-many relationship is represented as:
A) 1:N B) 1:1 only C) N:1 only D) 0:0
Answer: A
1253. A many-to-many relationship is represented as:
A) M:N B) 1:1 C) 1:N only D) 0:1
Answer: A
1254. A one-to-one relationship is represented as:
A) 1:1 B) 1:N C) M:N D) N:0
Answer: A
1255. Many-to-many relationships are commonly implemented using:
A) Junction/associative table B) Printer C) Monitor D) CPU
Answer: A
1256. A junction table usually contains:
A) Foreign keys to related tables B) Only reports C) Only images D) Only queries
Answer: A
1257. A relationship describes:
A) Association between entities/tables B) Monitor brightness C) CPU speed D) Printer size
Answer: A
1258. An employee may belong to one department while a department has many employees. This is:
A) One-to-many B) One-to-one C) Many-to-many D) No relationship
Answer: A
1259. A person and passport may have a one-to-one relationship.
A) True B) False C) Always many-to-many D) None
Answer: A
1260. Students and courses commonly represent:
A) Many-to-many relationship B) One-to-one only C) No relationship D) One-to-zero
Answer: A
1261. A foreign key should normally correspond to:
A) A referenced key B) A printer key C) A keyboard key D) A CPU register
Answer: A
1262. Referential integrity helps prevent:
A) Orphan references B) Printing C) Sorting D) Formatting
Answer: A
1263. An orphan record is one that:
A) References a non-existing parent record B) Has a primary key C) Has a valid foreign key D) Has a report
Answer: A
1264. A primary key can be:
A) Single or composite B) Only text C) Only integer D) Only date
Answer: A
1265. A composite primary key uses:
A) Multiple columns B) No columns C) Only reports D) Only views
Answer: A
1266. Which key can identify a row uniquely?
A) Candidate key B) Foreign key necessarily C) Any column D) Report
Answer: A
1267. A superkey may contain:
A) Extra attributes beyond those needed for uniqueness B) No attributes C) Only foreign keys D) Only reports
Answer: A
1268. Candidate key is a:
A) Minimal superkey B) Maximum table C) Report D) View
Answer: A
1269. A table may have:
A) Multiple candidate keys B) No attributes C) Only one possible unique combination always D) No keys ever
Answer: A
1270. A table normally has:
A) One primary key constraint B) Unlimited primary keys C) No primary key ever D) Only foreign keys
Answer: A
1271. A database can have:
A) Multiple foreign keys B) Only one foreign key C) No foreign keys D) Only primary keys
Answer: A
1272. A foreign key can reference:
A) A unique/primary key in another table B) Monitor C) CPU Caches D) Printer
Answer: A
1273. A key is an important part of:
A) Database design B) Monitor design C) Keyboard design D) Printer design
Answer: A
1274. A constraint helps control:
A) Allowed data values B) Monitor brightness C) CPU temperature D) Keyboard speed
Answer: A
1275. A NOT NULL constraint means:
A) A value must be supplied B) Duplicate values are required C) Table cannot exist D) Query is impossible
Answer: A
1276. A UNIQUE constraint means:
A) Values cannot be duplicated B) Values must be NULL C) Table must have no rows D) Query cannot run
Answer: A
1277. A CHECK constraint validates:
A) A condition B) Printer speed C) Monitor resolution D) CPU temperature
Answer: A
1278. A DEFAULT constraint/value is applied when:
A) A value is not supplied B) Database is deleted C) Table is dropped D) Query fails
Answer: A
1279. Primary key constraints provide:
A) Entity integrity B) Printer integrity C) Monitor integrity D) Keyboard integrity
Answer: A
1280. Referential integrity relates primarily to:
A) Foreign keys B) Monitors C) CPUs D) Printers
Answer: A
1281. A relationship can be:
A) One-to-one B) One-to-many C) Many-to-many D) All of these
Answer: D
1282. A foreign key can contain duplicate values?
A) Yes, depending on relationship B) Never C) Always invalid D) Only in reports
Answer: A
1283. A primary key can contain duplicate values?
A) No B) Yes C) Sometimes D) Only in views
Answer: A
1284. A primary key can be a combination of columns?
A) Yes B) No C) Never D) Only in reports
Answer: A
1285. A composite key is useful when:
A) One attribute alone cannot uniquely identify a record B) No records exist C) Only one table exists D) Database is empty
Answer: A
1286. A foreign key establishes:
A) Parent-child relationship B) CPU relationship C) Printer relationship D) Monitor relationship
Answer: A
1287. Entity integrity requires:
A) Primary key values to identify rows uniquely and not be NULL B) Duplicate primary keys C) NULL primary keys D) No keys
Answer: A
1288. A candidate key must be:
A) Minimal and unique B) Duplicate C) NULL D) A report
Answer: A
1289. A natural key could be:
A) Government-issued unique identifier B) Random table color C) CPU speed D) Monitor size
Answer: A
1290. A surrogate key is often:
A) Automatically generated ID B) Human-readable description necessarily C) Report D) View
Answer: A
1291. A relationship can be represented using:
A) Foreign keys B) Speakers C) Printers D) Monitors
Answer: A
1292. A table that references another table is often called:
A) Child table B) Parent table C) Root database D) Report
Answer: A
1293. The table being referenced is often called:
A) Parent table B) Child table C) Report table D) View only
Answer: A
1294. Deleting a parent row can affect:
A) Child rows B) Monitor C) Keyboard D) CPU
Answer: A
1295. Cascading actions are related to:
A) Referential integrity B) Monitor settings C) Printing D) Formatting
Answer: A
1296. A relationship constraint can prevent:
A) Invalid references B) Valid records C) Queries D) Reports
Answer: A
1297. A table can participate in:
A) Multiple relationships B) Only one relationship C) No relationship D) Only reports
Answer: A
1298. A database schema can define:
A) Tables, attributes and relationships B) Monitor color C) Keyboard speed D) Printer paper
Answer: A
1299. Data integrity refers to:
A) Accuracy and consistency B) Duplication C) Randomness D) Unauthorized modification
Answer: A
1300. Which is an integrity constraint?
A) Primary key B) Foreign key C) NOT NULL D) All of these
Answer: D
1301. A key made of two attributes is:
A) Composite key B) Simple key C) Foreign database D) Report key
Answer: A
1302. A key made of one attribute is:
A) Simple key B) Composite key C) Multi-table key D) Report
Answer: A
1303. A candidate key that is chosen to identify records is:
A) Primary key B) Foreign key C) Default key D) Report key
Answer: A
1304. A non-selected candidate key is sometimes called:
A) Alternate key B) Foreign key C) Primary table D) Report
Answer: A
1305. A foreign key can reference a key in:
A) Same or another table depending on design B) Monitor C) CPU D) Printer
Answer: A
1306. A self-referencing relationship occurs when:
A) A table references itself B) A monitor references a printer C) CPU references RAM D) Keyboard references mouse
Answer: A
1307. Employee-manager relationships may be:
A) Self-referencing B) One-to-zero only C) No relationship D) Printer relationship
Answer: A
1308. A relationship’s cardinality describes:
A) How many records can be associated B) Monitor size C) CPU speed D) Printer resolution
Answer: A
1309. A relationship’s participation describes:
A) Whether/how entities participate in a relationship B) Printer speed C) Monitor brightness D) CPU temperature
Answer: A
1310. Keys are primarily used for:
A) Identification and relationships B) Printing C) Formatting D) Graphics
Answer: A
1311. A unique identifier should remain:
A) Unique B) Duplicate C) NULL D) Randomly changing
Answer: A
1312. Good database design tries to avoid:
A) Update anomalies B) Data integrity C) Relationships D) Appropriate keys
Answer: A
1313. Insert anomaly is associated with:
A) Poor database design B) Monitor failure C) Printer failure D) CPU failure
Answer: A
1314. Update anomaly may occur because of:
A) Redundant data B) Good normalization C) Proper keys D) Referential integrity
Answer: A
1315. Delete anomaly can cause:
A) Unintended loss of information B) Better security C) Faster CPU D) Better display
Answer: A
1316. Normalization is intended to reduce:
A) Redundancy and anomalies B) Data integrity C) Relationships D) Table organization
Answer: A
1317. 1NF refers to:
A) First Normal Form B) First Network File C) One Numeric Field D) First New Function
Answer: A
1318. 2NF refers to:
A) Second Normal Form B) Second Network Format C) Two Number Format D) Second File
Answer: A
1319. 3NF refers to:
A) Third Normal Form B) Third Network File C) Three Numeric Fields D) Third File Format
Answer: A
1320. Normalization generally improves:
A) Database structure and consistency B) Monitor brightness C) Printer speed D) CPU clock speed
Answer: A
🔹 1321–1400: Database Queries & SQL Basics
Note: The notification explicitly lists “Database Management, basic concepts, RDBMS…” but does not separately list SQL in the syllabus excerpt. The following SQL questions are therefore practice expansion under Database Management/RDBMS, not a claim that each SQL command is explicitly named in the notification.
1321. SQL is used to:
A) Manage/query relational data B) Design keyboards C) Control monitors D) Repair printers
Answer: A
1322. Which SQL command retrieves data?
A) SELECT B) INSERT C) UPDATE D) DELETE
Answer: A
1323. Which command adds data?
A) INSERT B) SELECT C) UPDATE D) DELETE
Answer: A
1324. Which command modifies data?
A) UPDATE B) INSERT C) SELECT D) DELETE
Answer: A
1325. Which command removes rows?
A) DELETE B) SELECT C) INSERT D) UPDATE
Answer: A
1326. Which command creates a database object?
A) CREATE B) SELECT C) DELETE D) UPDATE
Answer: A
1327. Which command changes an existing table definition?
A) ALTER B) SELECT C) INSERT D) DELETE
Answer: A
1328. Which command removes a table definition?
A) DROP B) SELECT C) UPDATE D) INSERT
Answer: A
1329. WHERE clause is used to:
A) Filter rows B) Create tables C) Delete database D) Print reports
Answer: A
1330. ORDER BY is used to:
A) Sort results B) Create tables C) Delete tables D) Add records
Answer: A
1331. GROUP BY is used to:
A) Group rows based on values B) Delete rows C) Create users D) Format reports
Answer: A
1332. HAVING is generally used to filter:
A) Groups B) Individual columns only C) Tables D) Databases
Answer: A
1333. Which SQL operator checks equality?
A) = B) <> C) > D) <
Answer: A
1334. Which operator means not equal in standard SQL usage?
A) <> B) = C) + D) *
Answer: A
1335. Which operator means greater than?
A) > B) < C) = D) <=
Answer: A
1336. Which operator means less than?
A) < B) > C) = D) >=
Answer: A
1337. Which operator means greater than or equal to?
A) >= B) <= C) <> D) ==
Answer: A
1338. Which operator means less than or equal to?
A) <= B) >= C) <> D) ==
Answer: A
1339. AND requires:
A) Both conditions to be true B) Either condition only C) No condition D) Table creation
Answer: A
1340. OR requires:
A) At least one condition to be true B) Both always false C) No conditions D) A report
Answer: A
1341. NOT is used to:
A) Negate a condition B) Create a table C) Insert records D) Print
Answer: A
1342. DISTINCT is used to:
A) Remove duplicate result values B) Delete table rows C) Update records D) Create tables
Answer: A
1343. COUNT() is used to:
A) Count values/rows B) Add values only C) Sort data D) Delete data
Answer: A
1344. SUM() is used to:
A) Calculate total B) Count rows only C) Sort rows D) Delete data
Answer: A
1345. AVG() is used to:
A) Calculate average B) Delete data C) Count tables D) Create reports
Answer: A
1346. MAX() returns:
A) Maximum value B) Minimum value C) Average D) Count
Answer: A
1347. MIN() returns:
A) Minimum value B) Maximum value C) Average D) Total
Answer: A
1348. LIKE is commonly used for:
A) Pattern matching B) Table deletion C) Database creation D) User creation
Answer: A
1349. IN is used to:
A) Match a value against a list B) Create a table C) Delete a database D) Print reports
Answer: A
1350. BETWEEN is used to:
A) Test whether a value lies within a range B) Create tables C) Delete rows D) Create users
Answer: A
1351. IS NULL checks whether a value is:
A) NULL B) Zero only C) Negative D) Text
Answer: A
1352. A query can retrieve:
A) Selected columns B) Selected rows C) Both D) Neither
Answer: C
1353. SELECT * generally means:
A) Select all columns B) Delete all rows C) Create all tables D) Select no columns
Answer: A
1354. A JOIN is used to:
A) Combine related rows from tables B) Delete databases C) Print tables D) Format data
Answer: A
1355. INNER JOIN returns:
A) Matching rows from joined tables B) All rows regardless of match C) No rows D) Only unmatched rows
Answer: A
1356. LEFT JOIN returns:
A) All rows from left table and matching rows from right B) Only right rows C) Only matching rows always D) No rows
Answer: A
1357. RIGHT JOIN returns:
A) All rows from right table and matching rows from left B) Only left rows C) Only unmatched rows D) No rows
Answer: A
1358. A query can combine multiple tables using:
A) JOIN B) PRINT C) FORMAT D) SLIDE
Answer: A
1359. A subquery is:
A) Query inside another query B) A printer command C) A report D) A table only
Answer: A
1360. SQL commands that define database structures are generally:
A) DDL B) DML C) DCL D) TCL
Answer: A
1361. DDL stands for:
A) Data Definition Language B) Data Display Language C) Database Data Link D) Digital Definition Logic
Answer: A
1362. DML stands for:
A) Data Manipulation Language B) Data Management Link C) Digital Machine Language D) Database Machine Logic
Answer: A
1363. DCL stands for:
A) Data Control Language B) Data Command Link C) Database Control Logic D) Digital Control Language
Answer: A
1364. TCL stands for:
A) Transaction Control Language B) Table Control Language C) Transaction Command Logic D) Table Creation Language
Answer: A
1365. CREATE is generally a:
A) DDL command B) DML command C) DCL command D) TCL command
Answer: A
1366. ALTER is generally a:
A) DDL command B) DML command C) DCL command D) TCL command
Answer: A
1367. DROP is generally a:
A) DDL command B) DML command C) DCL command D) TCL command
Answer: A
1368. INSERT is generally a:
A) DML operation B) DDL operation C) DCL operation D) TCL operation
Answer: A
1369. UPDATE is generally a:
A) DML operation B) DDL operation C) DCL operation D) TCL operation
Answer: A
1370. DELETE is generally a:
A) DML operation B) DDL operation C) DCL operation D) TCL operation
Answer: A
1371. GRANT is generally associated with:
A) DCL B) DML C) DDL D) TCL
Answer: A
1372. REVOKE is generally associated with:
A) DCL B) DML C) DDL D) TCL
Answer: A
1373. COMMIT is associated with:
A) TCL B) DDL C) DML D) DCL
Answer: A
1374. ROLLBACK is associated with:
A) TCL B) DDL C) DML D) DCL
Answer: A
1375. A transaction is:
A) Logical unit of database work B) A printer C) A table only D) A report
Answer: A
1376. COMMIT makes transaction changes:
A) Permanent according to transaction semantics B) Automatically deleted C) Invisible D) Invalid
Answer: A
1377. ROLLBACK is used to:
A) Undo uncommitted changes B) Create a table C) Print records D) Sort data
Answer: A
1378. GRANT is used to:
A) Give privileges B) Delete data C) Create reports D) Sort rows
Answer: A
1379. REVOKE is used to:
A) Remove privileges B) Add rows C) Create tables D) Print data
Answer: A
1380. A database query can be used to:
A) Retrieve specific information B) Change monitor resolution C) Repair CPU D) Format keyboard
Answer: A
1381. An SQL statement can contain:
A) Clauses B) Conditions C) Expressions D) All of these
Answer: D
1382. A WHERE condition is evaluated for:
A) Rows B) Printers C) Tables only D) Reports
Answer: A
1383. GROUP BY is often used with:
A) Aggregate functions B) Printers C) Monitors D) Keyboards
Answer: A
1384. COUNT(*) counts:
A) Rows B) Tables only C) Databases D) Columns only
Answer: A
1385. SUM is normally applied to:
A) Numeric data B) Images C) Audio D) Boolean only
Answer: A
1386. AVG is normally applied to:
A) Numeric values B) Tables C) Reports D) Images
Answer: A
1387. MAX can find:
A) Highest value B) Lowest value only C) Number of rows only D) Average
Answer: A
1388. MIN can find:
A) Lowest value B) Highest value C) Number of rows D) Total
Answer: A
1389. A JOIN normally requires:
A) Related columns/conditions B) Printer C) Monitor D) CPU
Answer: A
1390. SQL aliases are used to:
A) Give temporary names to tables/columns B) Delete tables C) Create databases D) Encrypt data
Answer: A
1391. Which symbol is commonly used with LIKE for any sequence of characters?
A) % B) # C) @ D) &
Answer: A
1392. Which symbol commonly represents a single character with LIKE in SQL?
A) _ B) % C) # D) @
Answer: A
1393. A query result is generally a:
A) Set of rows/columns B) CPU C) Printer D) Keyboard
Answer: A
1394. SQL can retrieve data from:
A) One or more tables B) Only printers C) Only monitors D) Only CPUs
Answer: A
1395. A view can be based on:
A) A query B) Keyboard C) Printer D) CPU
Answer: A
1396. A query can be saved for:
A) Reuse B) Increasing RAM C) Changing monitor size D) Printing keyboard keys
Answer: A
1397. SQL is:
A) A database query language B) An operating system C) A CPU D) A printer
Answer: A
1398. A SELECT query normally does not:
A) Directly modify stored rows B) Retrieve data C) Filter data D) Sort data
Answer: A
1399. Data manipulation includes:
A) Insert, update and delete B) Monitor configuration C) Keyboard setup D) Printer setup
Answer: A
1400. SQL is widely associated with:
A) RDBMS B) Monitors C) Keyboards D) Printers
Answer: A
🔹 1401–1460: Views, Transactions & Concurrency
1401. A database view is:
A) Virtual table based on a query B) Physical keyboard C) Printer D) CPU
Answer: A
1402. A view generally stores:
A) Query definition rather than an independent copy of data B) CPU instructions C) Monitor pixels D) Keyboard settings
Answer: A
1403. Views can simplify:
A) Complex queries B) CPU design C) Keyboard design D) Printer hardware
Answer: A
1404. A view can provide:
A) Restricted access to selected data B) More CPU speed C) More RAM D) Faster monitor
Answer: A
1405. Views can help with:
A) Security and data abstraction B) Hardware repair C) Printing only D) Audio recording
Answer: A
1406. A view is sometimes called a:
A) Virtual table B) Physical disk C) Memory chip D) Printer
Answer: A
1407. A view is created using:
A) A query B) Keyboard C) Monitor D) CPU
Answer: A
1408. A view can be based on:
A) One or more tables B) Only a printer C) Only a monitor D) Only a CPU
Answer: A
1409. A transaction is a:
A) Logical unit of work B) Table column C) Report D) View only
Answer: A
1410. Transactions are important for:
A) Maintaining database consistency B) Monitor brightness C) Printer speed D) Keyboard layout
Answer: A
1411. ACID is associated with:
A) Database transactions B) Computer graphics C) Printers D) Operating systems only
Answer: A
1412. ACID stands for:
A) Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability B) Accuracy, Control, Integrity, Data C) Access, Control, Input, Data D) None
Answer: A
1413. Atomicity means:
A) Transaction is all-or-nothing B) Data is always duplicated C) Data is always encrypted D) Query is always printed
Answer: A
1414. Consistency means:
A) Transaction preserves database rules/integrity B) Data is deleted C) Data is duplicated D) Table disappears
Answer: A
1415. Isolation means:
A) Concurrent transactions are appropriately separated B) Database is offline C) Tables are deleted D) Users cannot log in
Answer: A
1416. Durability means:
A) Committed changes persist B) Data is always temporary C) Records disappear D) Queries are cancelled
Answer: A
1417. COMMIT indicates:
A) Successful completion of transaction changes B) Deletion of database C) Table creation only D) Query cancellation
Answer: A
1418. ROLLBACK is used to:
A) Undo uncommitted changes B) Create a table C) Add a column D) Print data
Answer: A
1419. SAVEPOINT is used to:
A) Establish a point within a transaction B) Create a database server C) Print records D) Create reports
Answer: A
1420. A transaction may contain:
A) Multiple database operations B) Only one character C) Only one table D) Only one report
Answer: A
1421. Concurrency means:
A) Multiple transactions/users operating at the same time B) One user only C) No database access D) Data deletion
Answer: A
1422. Concurrency control is used to:
A) Maintain correctness when transactions execute concurrently B) Increase monitor size C) Print reports D) Install Windows
Answer: A
1423. A concurrency problem can occur when:
A) Multiple users access the same data simultaneously B) No users access data C) Database is empty D) Printer is off
Answer: A
1424. Lost update is a:
A) Concurrency problem B) Printer problem C) CPU problem D) Monitor problem
Answer: A
1425. Dirty read is related to:
A) Concurrency/transaction processing B) Keyboard C) Printer D) Monitor
Answer: A
1426. Non-repeatable read is a:
A) Transaction concurrency issue B) Hardware failure C) Printer issue D) Keyboard issue
Answer: A
1427. Phantom read is related to:
A) Concurrent database transactions B) CPU cache C) Monitor D) Printer
Answer: A
1428. Locking is used for:
A) Concurrency control B) Printing C) Formatting D) Sorting only
Answer: A
1429. A shared lock generally permits:
A) Reading B) Exclusive modification C) Table deletion D) Database deletion
Answer: A
1430. An exclusive lock generally permits:
A) Controlled modification B) Unlimited concurrent modification C) Printing only D) Viewing only
Answer: A
1431. Locking helps prevent:
A) Conflicting simultaneous operations B) Monitor failure C) Printer failure D) Keyboard failure
Answer: A
1432. Deadlock can occur when:
A) Transactions wait for each other’s locks B) Database is empty C) No locks exist D) Only one operation occurs
Answer: A
1433. A transaction schedule represents:
A) Order of transaction operations B) Printer schedule C) Monitor schedule D) Keyboard schedule
Answer: A
1434. Serial execution means:
A) Transactions execute one after another B) All transactions execute randomly C) No transactions execute D) Transactions are deleted
Answer: A
1435. Concurrent execution means:
A) Operations from multiple transactions may interleave B) Only one transaction exists C) Database is offline D) No operations occur
Answer: A
1436. Serializability concerns:
A) Correctness of concurrent schedules B) Printer settings C) Monitor resolution D) Keyboard layout
Answer: A
1437. Database locks can be placed on:
A) Data items B) Printers C) Monitors D) Keyboards
Answer: A
1438. Concurrency control is necessary in:
A) Multi-user databases B) Offline calculators only C) Printers D) Monitors
Answer: A
1439. Transaction failure may require:
A) Rollback/recovery B) Monitor replacement C) Keyboard replacement D) Printer replacement
Answer: A
1440. Database recovery helps restore:
A) Consistent database state B) Monitor resolution C) Keyboard layout D) Printer speed
Answer: A
1441. A transaction that completes successfully is:
A) Committed B) Rolled back C) Deleted D) Aborted necessarily
Answer: A
1442. A failed transaction may be:
A) Rolled back B) Printed C) Displayed D) Sorted
Answer: A
1443. Isolation protects transactions from:
A) Undesired interference B) Printer errors C) Keyboard errors D) Monitor errors
Answer: A
1444. Durability is associated with:
A) Committed transactions B) Uncommitted data only C) Failed queries D) Deleted tables
Answer: A
1445. Atomicity protects against:
A) Partial transaction completion B) Monitor failure C) Printer failure D) Keyboard failure
Answer: A
1446. Consistency ensures:
A) Database rules remain satisfied B) Data is always duplicated C) Tables disappear D) Reports are printed
Answer: A
1447. Concurrency control helps maintain:
A) Isolation and consistency B) Monitor brightness C) Printer speed D) CPU temperature
Answer: A
1448. A transaction boundary can be established using:
A) COMMIT/ROLLBACK semantics B) Printer commands C) Keyboard shortcuts D) Monitor settings
Answer: A
1449. A deadlock involves:
A) Circular waiting B) Fast printing C) Data sorting D) Table creation
Answer: A
1450. Deadlock detection is part of:
A) Transaction/concurrency management B) Word processing C) Presentation software D) Graphics
Answer: A
1451. Lock granularity refers to:
A) Size of the data item being locked B) Monitor size C) Printer size D) Keyboard size
Answer: A
1452. Row-level locking locks:
A) Individual rows B) Entire database necessarily C) Monitor D) Printer
Answer: A
1453. Table-level locking locks:
A) A whole table B) One character only C) CPU D) Keyboard
Answer: A
1454. Database transactions help:
A) Protect consistency during updates B) Increase screen resolution C) Print faster D) Increase RAM
Answer: A
1455. A transaction should ideally be:
A) Atomic B) Partially completed C) Uncontrolled D) Random
Answer: A
1456. Concurrency becomes especially important in:
A) Multi-user database systems B) Single-user calculators C) Printers D) Speakers
Answer: A
1457. A database system must handle:
A) Concurrent access appropriately B) Only printing C) Only viewing D) Only backups
Answer: A
1458. Transaction management helps with:
A) Reliability B) Consistency C) Recovery D) All of these
Answer: D
1459. The purpose of a transaction is to treat related operations as:
A) One logical unit B) Separate unrelated systems C) Reports D) Views
Answer: A
1460. Which is NOT an ACID property?
A) Printing B) Atomicity C) Consistency D) Durability
Answer: A
🔹 1461–1500: Reports & Database Management Revision
1461. A database report is used to:
A) Present database information in organized form B) Store CPU instructions C) Control monitor D) Install RAM
Answer: A
1462. Reports are useful for:
A) Presenting information B) Summarizing data C) Printing information D) All of these
Answer: D
1463. A report may contain:
A) Headings B) Records C) Calculations D) All of these
Answer: D
1464. A report can be generated from:
A) Tables or queries B) Keyboard C) Monitor D) CPU
Answer: A
1465. A report can be sorted by:
A) Selected fields B) CPU speed C) Monitor resolution D) Printer model
Answer: A
1466. A report can be grouped by:
A) Field values B) Keyboard keys C) CPU registers D) Monitor pixels
Answer: A
1467. A report can include:
A) Calculated values B) Hardware components C) CPU instructions D) Keyboard drivers
Answer: A
1468. A summary report may include:
A) Totals and averages B) Only raw data C) Only passwords D) Only images
Answer: A
1469. Database reports are often used for:
A) Decision support B) Data presentation C) Printing D) All of these
Answer: D
1470. A report differs from a table because a report primarily:
A) Presents information for viewing/output B) Stores the primary data necessarily C) Replaces the database D) Acts as CPU
Answer: A
1471. A query can be used as a source for:
A) A report B) Keyboard C) Monitor D) Printer driver
Answer: A
1472. Report grouping organizes records according to:
A) Common field values B) CPU type C) Monitor type D) Keyboard type
Answer: A
1473. A report footer may contain:
A) Summary information B) CPU instructions C) Keyboard commands D) Monitor settings
Answer: A
1474. A report header may contain:
A) Title information B) Database hardware C) CPU registers D) Printer drivers
Answer: A
1475. A report can be printed:
A) Yes B) No C) Only on CPU D) Only on keyboard
Answer: A
1476. Database reporting helps users:
A) Understand stored information B) Increase RAM C) Repair hardware D) Change operating systems
Answer: A
1477. A report can present data in:
A) Readable format B) Random binary only C) CPU code only D) Unusable form
Answer: A
1478. Which database object is designed primarily for formatted output?
A) Report B) Table C) Key D) Constraint
Answer: A
1479. A report may be based on:
A) Query results B) Tables C) Both A and B D) Neither
Answer: C
1480. Database reports can be used for:
A) Management summaries B) Lists C) Statistical information D) All of these
Answer: D
1481. Which object stores structured data?
A) Table B) Report C) View only D) Query only
Answer: A
1482. Which object provides a virtual representation of data?
A) View B) Table C) Printer D) Keyboard
Answer: A
1483. Which object retrieves selected data?
A) Query B) Monitor C) Printer D) CPU
Answer: A
1484. Which concept manages a unit of database work?
A) Transaction B) Report C) Table D) Field
Answer: A
1485. Which concept manages simultaneous transactions?
A) Concurrency control B) Formatting C) Printing D) Reporting
Answer: A
1486. Which property means all-or-nothing?
A) Atomicity B) Durability C) Isolation D) Consistency
Answer: A
1487. Which property means committed data persists?
A) Durability B) Atomicity C) Isolation D) Consistency
Answer: A
1488. Which property protects against interference between concurrent transactions?
A) Isolation B) Durability C) Atomicity D) Reporting
Answer: A
1489. Which property ensures database rules remain valid?
A) Consistency B) Isolation C) Durability D) Printing
Answer: A
1490. The four ACID properties are:
A) Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability B) Access, Control, Input, Data C) Add, Copy, Insert, Delete D) None
Answer: A
1491. Which is used to undo an incomplete transaction?
A) ROLLBACK B) COMMIT C) SELECT D) INSERT
Answer: A
1492. Which is used to permanently complete a transaction?
A) COMMIT B) ROLLBACK C) DELETE D) SELECT
Answer: A
1493. Database concurrency is particularly important when:
A) Multiple users access data B) No users exist C) Database is deleted D) Computer is switched off
Answer: A
1494. Which database component controls user access privileges?
A) Authorization/security mechanism B) Monitor C) Printer D) Keyboard
Answer: A
1495. Database backup is primarily used for:
A) Recovery from data loss/failure B) Increasing CPU speed C) Increasing monitor size D) Printing
Answer: A
1496. Database integrity means:
A) Data remains accurate and consistent B) Data is duplicated C) Data is always public D) Data is randomly changed
Answer: A
1497. RDBMS organizes information into:
A) Related tables B) Slides C) Images only D) Audio files
Answer: A
1498. Which topic is explicitly included in the TGPRB technical syllabus?
A) RDBMS B) Database Management C) Transactions D) All of these
Answer: D
1499. Which topic is explicitly listed along with database management in the notification?
A) Views B) Concurrency C) Reports D) All of these
Answer: D
1500. The official notification places Database Management under:
A) Computer Software B) Computer Hardware C) Arithmetic D) English
Answer: A
🎯 Part 3 Quick Revision — Must Remember
For the exam, revise these especially:
DBMS vs RDBMS
Table, row, column, field, record
Primary key
Foreign key
Candidate key
Composite key
Constraints
Data types
Relationships — 1:1, 1:M, M:N
Data integrity
Views
Transactions
ACID properties
COMMIT and ROLLBACK
Concurrency
Locks and deadlocks
Reports
Basic SQL concepts
SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE
CREATE, ALTER, DROP
WHERE, ORDER BY, GROUP BY
COUNT, SUM, AVG, MAX, MIN