TGPRB ASI (Fingerprint Bureau) 2026 notification. The important point is that Paper III is not a fingerprint-science paper; the official syllabus specifies a Computer/IT-oriented Technical Paper.
Official Technical Paper syllabus
1. Computer Hardware
Computer architecture
Fundamentals of computers
PC assembling
Installation
Troubleshooting
Viruses
Memory hierarchy
ROM, RAM, DRAM
Storage devices & secondary memory
RAID and RAID levels
High-speed memories
CPU
NIC cards
Keyboard, mouse
Video cards
Monitors & LCD
Digital camera
Sound cards
Printers
Modems
Scanners
Power supply
2. Computer Software
Operating systems
DOS commands
Windows accessories & utilities
Windows generations
Installation & maintenance
File management
User accounts & passwords
Administrative tools
Control Panel
Services
Settings
Multimedia
Printers
Database Management
RDBMS
Data types
Tables
Views
Transactions
Concurrency
Reports
3. MS Office
MS Word
MS Excel
MS PowerPoint
MS Access
Formatting/editing
Tables and objects
Page design
Macros
Mail merge
Charts
Pivot tables
Data validation
Mathematical functions
File protection
Queries, forms and reports
4. Networking & Security Management
Network topologies
LAN, MAN, WAN
Firewall policy
Packet filters
Application gateway
Advanced authentication mechanisms
Antivirus
Encryption
VPN
Internet
Intranet
The official notification places Computer Hardware under Paper III and specifically includes computer architecture, PC assembling, installation, troubleshooting, viruses, memory, storage, RAID, CPU, NIC cards and computer peripherals.
Part 1: Computer Hardware
A. Computer Fundamentals & Architecture — 1–100
1. What does CPU stand for?
A) Central Processing Unit
B) Computer Processing Utility
C) Central Program Unit
D) Computer Program Unit
Ans: A
2. Which is known as the brain of a computer?
A) RAM
B) CPU
C) Monitor
D) Keyboard
Ans: B
3. CPU mainly consists of which units?
A) ALU, CU and registers
B) RAM, ROM and HDD
C) Keyboard, mouse and monitor
D) BIOS, CMOS and USB
Ans: A
4. ALU stands for:
A) Arithmetic Logic Unit
B) Application Logic Unit
C) Arithmetic Link Unit
D) Advanced Logic Utility
Ans: A
5. The ALU performs:
A) Printing
B) Arithmetic and logical operations
C) File storage only
D) Network communication only
Ans: B
6. CU stands for:
A) Computer Utility
B) Control Unit
C) Central Utility
D) Control User
Ans: B
7. The Control Unit primarily:
A) Controls and coordinates computer operations
B) Stores files permanently
C) Displays images
D) Prints documents
Ans: A
8. Which component temporarily stores data being processed?
A) RAM
B) DVD
C) ROM
D) Printer
Ans: A
9. Which is an example of primary memory?
A) RAM
B) Pen drive
C) DVD
D) Hard disk
Ans: A
10. Which is generally classified as secondary storage?
A) RAM
B) Cache
C) Hard disk
D) Register
Ans: C
11. The smallest unit of digital data is:
A) Byte
B) Bit
C) Word
D) Nibble
Ans: B
12. One byte contains:
A) 2 bits
B) 4 bits
C) 8 bits
D) 16 bits
Ans: C
13. Four bits are called:
A) Byte
B) Nibble
C) Word
D) Block
Ans: B
14. Which number system is fundamental to digital computers?
A) Decimal
B) Binary
C) Octal
D) Roman
Ans: B
15. Binary number system uses:
A) 0 and 1
B) 1 and 2
C) 0–9
D) A–F
Ans: A
16. Decimal number system has base:
A) 2
B) 8
C) 10
D) 16
Ans: C
17. Hexadecimal number system has base:
A) 2
B) 8
C) 10
D) 16
Ans: D
18. Octal number system has base:
A) 2
B) 8
C) 10
D) 16
Ans: B
19. Which is an input device?
A) Monitor
B) Printer
C) Keyboard
D) Speaker
Ans: C
20. Which is an output device?
A) Mouse
B) Keyboard
C) Scanner
D) Monitor
Ans: D
21. Which component connects major computer components?
A) Motherboard
B) Mouse
C) Speaker
D) Printer
Ans: A
22. The motherboard is also called:
A) Mainboard
B) Software board
C) Memory board only
D) Display board
Ans: A
23. BIOS traditionally stands for:
A) Basic Input/Output System
B) Binary Input Operating System
C) Basic Internal Operating Software
D) Binary Integrated Output System
Ans: A
24. BIOS is traditionally stored in:
A) ROM/flash memory
B) Keyboard
C) Monitor
D) Printer
Ans: A
25. POST stands for:
A) Power-On Self-Test
B) Program Operating System Test
C) Power Operating Software Tool
D) Processor Output System Test
Ans: A
26. POST generally occurs during:
A) Computer startup
B) Printing
C) Internet browsing
D) File deletion
Ans: A
27. Booting means:
A) Starting/loading the computer system
B) Printing a document
C) Formatting text
D) Scanning an image
Ans: A
28. Cold boot means:
A) Starting a computer from a powered-off state
B) Restarting only the software
C) Closing an application
D) Formatting a disk
Ans: A
29. Warm boot generally means:
A) Restarting the computer without completely powering it off
B) Installing RAM
C) Starting a printer
D) Scanning a document
Ans: A
30. Firmware is generally:
A) Software embedded in hardware
B) A type of printer
C) A network cable
D) A keyboard layout
Ans: A
31. Which component supplies electrical power to a PC?
A) PSU
B) CPU
C) RAM
D) NIC
Ans: A
32. PSU stands for:
A) Power Supply Unit
B) Processing System Utility
C) Primary Storage Unit
D) Power Software Utility
Ans: A
33. A computer’s power supply converts:
A) Electrical power into appropriate voltages for components
B) Data into images
C) Sound into text
D) Text into code only
Ans: A
34. Which component holds the CPU, RAM and expansion components?
A) Motherboard
B) Monitor
C) Printer
D) Scanner
Ans: A
35. Expansion slots are generally located on the:
A) Motherboard
B) Keyboard
C) Monitor
D) Mouse
Ans: A
36. PCIe is primarily used for:
A) Expansion devices
B) Printing documents
C) Displaying text only
D) Keyboard typing
Ans: A
37. GPU stands for:
A) Graphics Processing Unit
B) General Processing Utility
C) Graphics Program Unit
D) General Peripheral Unit
Ans: A
38. A GPU is mainly designed for:
A) Graphics processing
B) Keyboard input
C) File naming
D) Power conversion
Ans: A
39. Which component is particularly important for graphics rendering?
A) GPU
B) PSU only
C) Keyboard
D) Modem
Ans: A
40. A computer’s clock speed is commonly expressed in:
A) Hertz
B) Bytes
C) Pixels
D) Volts only
Ans: A
41. GHz means:
A) Gigahertz
B) Gigabyte
C) Gigabit
D) General Hertz
Ans: A
42. CPU clock speed indicates:
A) Clock cycles per second
B) Storage capacity
C) Monitor size
D) Printer speed only
Ans: A
43. A multicore processor contains:
A) Multiple processing cores
B) Multiple keyboards
C) Multiple monitors
D) Multiple power supplies
Ans: A
44. Which is faster in typical access than RAM?
A) Cache memory
B) DVD
C) HDD
D) Tape
Ans: A
45. Registers are located:
A) Inside/associated closely with the CPU
B) Inside the monitor
C) Inside the printer
D) Inside the keyboard
Ans: A
46. Registers are used for:
A) Very fast temporary storage during processing
B) Permanent file storage
C) Printing
D) Internet access
Ans: A
47. The instruction cycle commonly includes:
A) Fetch, decode and execute
B) Print, scan and copy
C) Type, save and delete
D) Open, close and print
Ans: A
48. In the fetch-decode-execute cycle, the first step is:
A) Fetch
B) Execute
C) Print
D) Delete
Ans: A
49. The instruction is interpreted during:
A) Decode
B) Print
C) Storage
D) Boot only
Ans: A
50. The actual operation is performed during:
A) Execute
B) Fetch
C) Decode only
D) Boot
Ans: A
51. Computer architecture refers broadly to:
A) Organization/design of computer systems
B) Office building design
C) Internet websites
D) Printer paper design
Ans: A
52. Which is a major component of a computer system?
A) CPU
B) Desk
C) Chair
D) Paper
Ans: A
53. Hardware refers to:
A) Physical components of a computer
B) Computer programs only
C) Internet websites
D) User passwords
Ans: A
54. Software refers to:
A) Programs and instructions
B) Physical wires only
C) Computer casing
D) Keyboard keys
Ans: A
55. Which is hardware?
A) RAM
B) Windows
C) MS Word
D) Antivirus program
Ans: A
56. Which is software?
A) Operating system
B) RAM
C) CPU
D) Monitor
Ans: A
57. A device driver allows:
A) Operating system to communicate with hardware
B) Monitor to generate electricity
C) CPU to become RAM
D) Keyboard to store permanent files
Ans: A
58. Plug and Play allows:
A) Automatic detection/configuration of compatible hardware
B) Faster printing only
C) Virus creation
D) File compression only
Ans: A
59. USB stands for:
A) Universal Serial Bus
B) Universal System Board
C) Unified Serial Board
D) User Service Bus
Ans: A
60. USB is commonly used to:
A) Connect peripherals
B) Generate electricity
C) Replace the CPU
D) Replace RAM automatically
Ans: A
61. HDMI is commonly associated with:
A) Digital audio/video transmission
B) Keyboard-only communication
C) Power generation
D) CPU cooling
Ans: A
62. VGA is primarily associated with:
A) Video/display output
B) Audio storage
C) Network routing
D) Power supply
Ans: A
63. Ethernet is commonly used for:
A) Networking
B) Printing only
C) Sound recording
D) CPU cooling
Ans: A
64. RJ-45 connectors are commonly associated with:
A) Ethernet networking
B) VGA
C) HDMI
D) Audio headphones
Ans: A
65. CMOS traditionally stores:
A) System configuration information
B) Large video files
C) Operating system programs
D) Printer documents
Ans: A
66. CMOS settings may include:
A) Hardware configuration information
B) Word documents
C) Photographs only
D) Music files only
Ans: A
67. A motherboard chipset helps:
A) Coordinate communication among system components
B) Print documents
C) Display web pages independently
D) Scan fingerprints independently
Ans: A
68. The system bus is used to:
A) Transfer information among components
B) Print pages
C) Cool the CPU
D) Display images only
Ans: A
69. The data bus carries:
A) Data
B) Only electrical power
C) Only addresses
D) Only instructions
Ans: A
70. The address bus carries:
A) Addresses
B) Audio signals only
C) Images only
D) Power
Ans: A
71. The control bus carries:
A) Control signals
B) Photos
C) Documents
D) Electricity only
Ans: A
72. A 64-bit CPU can process:
A) 64-bit data/instructions in relevant operations
B) Only 8-bit data
C) Only decimal numbers
D) No binary data
Ans: A
73. Moore’s law historically relates to:
A) Growth in transistor density/integrated circuit capability
B) Printer speed
C) Internet passwords
D) Monitor size
Ans: A
74. An integrated circuit contains:
A) Electronic components on a semiconductor chip
B) Only wires
C) Only mechanical parts
D) Paper components
Ans: A
75. IC stands for:
A) Integrated Circuit
B) Internal Computer
C) Internet Controller
D) Input Connector
Ans: A
76. A transistor is primarily a:
A) Semiconductor electronic device
B) Storage disk
C) Printer
D) Cable
Ans: A
77. Modern CPUs are generally built using:
A) Integrated circuits
B) Vacuum tubes
C) Mechanical gears
D) Paper circuits
Ans: A
78. Vacuum tubes were used in:
A) Early electronic computers
B) Modern USB drives
C) Modern SSDs
D) LCD panels
Ans: A
79. The first generation of computers commonly used:
A) Vacuum tubes
B) Microprocessors
C) SSDs
D) Optical mice
Ans: A
80. Second-generation computers commonly used:
A) Transistors
B) Vacuum tubes only
C) Smartphones
D) GPUs
Ans: A
81. Third-generation computers commonly used:
A) Integrated circuits
B) Vacuum tubes
C) Mechanical switches only
D) Magnetic tape only
Ans: A
82. Fourth-generation computers are associated with:
A) Microprocessors
B) Vacuum tubes
C) Mechanical relays
D) Abacuses
Ans: A
83. A microprocessor is:
A) CPU implemented on a chip
B) A monitor
C) A printer
D) A storage cable
Ans: A
84. Which technology allows several CPU cores on one processor package?
A) Multicore processing
B) Dot matrix
C) RAID
D) CMOS
Ans: A
85. Hyper-threading/SMT is related to:
A) Simultaneous handling of multiple threads by processor resources
B) Hard-disk formatting
C) Printer alignment
D) Keyboard layout
Ans: A
86. A thread is:
A) A sequence of execution within a process
B) A physical cable
C) A memory chip
D) A printer cartridge
Ans: A
87. A process is generally:
A) A program in execution
B) A computer cable
C) A monitor pixel
D) A power connector
Ans: A
88. CPU performance can be affected by:
A) Clock speed, architecture, cores and cache
B) Keyboard color only
C) Monitor stand
D) Printer paper size
Ans: A
89. Cache memory is designed to:
A) Reduce average memory access time
B) Store paper documents
C) Provide electrical power
D) Display images
Ans: A
90. L1 cache is generally:
A) Smaller and faster than higher-level caches
B) Slower than hard disks
C) A type of printer
D) External storage
Ans: A
91. L2 and L3 are examples of:
A) CPU cache levels
B) Printer ports
C) Network protocols
D) Display standards
Ans: A
92. A heat sink is used to:
A) Dissipate heat
B) Store data
C) Increase RAM capacity
D) Connect to the Internet
Ans: A
93. Thermal paste is generally used between:
A) CPU and cooling solution
B) Keyboard and mouse
C) Monitor and printer
D) HDD and USB cable
Ans: A
94. A cooling fan is used primarily to:
A) Move air and help dissipate heat
B) Store data
C) Process instructions
D) Generate software
Ans: A
95. CPU overheating can cause:
A) Instability or shutdown
B) Increased storage capacity
C) Better printing
D) More RAM
Ans: A
96. A surge protector helps protect equipment from:
A) Electrical voltage surges
B) Computer viruses
C) File corruption caused by software only
D) Keyboard errors
Ans: A
97. UPS stands for:
A) Uninterruptible Power Supply
B) Universal Processing System
C) User Power Software
D) Unified Program Supply
Ans: A
98. A UPS can provide:
A) Temporary backup power
B) Permanent Internet access
C) Unlimited storage
D) Additional CPU cores
Ans: A
99. A power failure while data is being written can cause:
A) Data loss/corruption
B) More RAM
C) Faster CPU speed
D) Better graphics
Ans: A
100. The main purpose of computer architecture is to define:
A) How computer components are organized and operate
B) How offices are constructed
C) How documents are printed only
D) How passwords are selected
Ans: A
B. PC Assembling & Installation — 101–180
101. Before assembling a PC, the first priority should be:
A) Safety and power disconnection
B) Installing games
C) Connecting the printer
D) Opening websites
Ans: A
102. ESD stands for:
A) Electrostatic Discharge
B) Electronic Storage Device
C) External System Drive
D) Electrical Software Data
Ans: A
103. ESD can damage:
A) Electronic components
B) Paper
C) Monitor stand only
D) Printer paper
Ans: A
104. An antistatic wrist strap helps prevent:
A) Electrostatic discharge damage
B) Virus infection
C) File deletion
D) Network failure
Ans: A
105. Before installing a motherboard, it should be placed:
A) Correctly aligned with case mounting points
B) Directly on water
C) Inside the monitor
D) On a printer tray
Ans: A
106. Motherboard mounting screws should be:
A) Correctly positioned and secured
B) Randomly placed
C) Omitted completely
D) Installed into every possible hole regardless of alignment
Ans: A
107. Incorrect motherboard standoffs can cause:
A) Short circuits/damage
B) Better performance
C) More RAM
D) Faster Internet
Ans: A
108. RAM modules are installed into:
A) DIMM memory slots
B) CPU socket
C) USB ports
D) SATA power connector
Ans: A
109. CPU is installed into:
A) CPU socket
B) RAM slot
C) PCIe slot only
D) USB port
Ans: A
110. CPU orientation during installation is important because:
A) The CPU and socket have alignment features
B) It changes the monitor resolution
C) It controls the printer
D) It determines the keyboard layout
Ans: A
111. Applying excessive thermal paste is:
A) Generally undesirable
B) Required for maximum performance
C) A method of increasing RAM
D) Necessary to install Windows
Ans: A
112. CPU cooler should be:
A) Properly mounted with appropriate thermal interface
B) Left disconnected
C) Placed on the keyboard
D) Installed inside the PSU
Ans: A
113. RAM must be compatible with:
A) Motherboard and processor/platform requirements
B) Monitor stand
C) Printer cartridge
D) Mouse pad
Ans: A
114. Storage drives need:
A) Appropriate data and power connections
B) Keyboard drivers only
C) Printer ink
D) Speakers
Ans: A
115. SATA is commonly used to connect:
A) Storage devices
B) Monitors only
C) Keyboards only
D) Speakers only
Ans: A
116. SATA stands for:
A) Serial ATA
B) System ATA
C) Storage Access Technology
D) Serial Application Transfer
Ans: A
117. An M.2 slot may support:
A) SSDs and certain expansion devices
B) Printers only
C) Speakers only
D) Power cables only
Ans: A
118. A graphics card is commonly installed into:
A) PCIe x16 slot
B) DIMM slot
C) CPU socket
D) SATA port
Ans: A
119. NIC stands for:
A) Network Interface Card
B) Network Internal Computer
C) New Internet Connector
D) Network Installation Controller
Ans: A
120. A NIC provides:
A) Network connectivity
B) CPU cooling
C) Permanent storage
D) Display brightness
Ans: A
121. A sound card is associated with:
A) Audio processing
B) RAM storage
C) CPU cooling
D) Network routing only
Ans: A
122. A motherboard chipset determines:
A) Supported interfaces/features of the platform
B) Printer ink level
C) Keyboard language only
D) Monitor brightness
Ans: A
123. After assembling hardware, the next major step is often:
A) Power-on testing/POST
B) Printing a document
C) Opening email
D) Installing games
Ans: A
124. If a newly assembled PC does not power on, first check:
A) Power connections and switch
B) Wallpaper
C) Browser history
D) Printer settings
Ans: A
125. The 24-pin connector is commonly associated with:
A) ATX motherboard power
B) VGA video
C) USB data
D) Audio
Ans: A
126. The CPU power connector is commonly:
A) 4/8-pin EPS-type connector
B) HDMI
C) VGA
D) RJ-45
Ans: A
127. Front-panel connectors may include:
A) Power switch and LEDs
B) CPU cores
C) RAM chips
D) Hard-disk platters
Ans: A
128. A PC case provides:
A) Physical protection and mounting for components
B) Operating system functions
C) Internet service
D) Antivirus protection
Ans: A
129. Airflow inside a PC helps:
A) Cool components
B) Increase storage capacity
C) Convert binary to decimal
D) Install software
Ans: A
130. Dust accumulation inside a PC can:
A) Reduce cooling efficiency
B) Increase CPU speed
C) Increase RAM
D) Improve airflow
Ans: A
131. Cable management can help:
A) Improve airflow and maintenance
B) Increase CPU cores
C) Convert HDD to RAM
D) Remove viruses automatically
Ans: A
132. A bootable device contains:
A) Software capable of starting a computer system
B) Only photographs
C) Only music
D) Only printer drivers
Ans: A
133. BIOS/UEFI firmware can select:
A) Boot device/order
B) Keyboard color only
C) Printer paper size only
D) Website domain
Ans: A
134. UEFI is a modern replacement/alternative to traditional:
A) BIOS firmware interface
B) RAM
C) CPU
D) HDD
Ans: A
135. Secure Boot is associated with:
A) UEFI-based boot security
B) Printer ink
C) CPU cooling
D) Mouse sensitivity
Ans: A
136. Installing an operating system generally requires:
A) Bootable installation media
B) Printer paper
C) Audio cable
D) Mouse pad
Ans: A
137. OS installation may involve:
A) Partitioning and formatting storage
B) Replacing the monitor
C) Changing keyboard keys
D) Cleaning printer ink
Ans: A
138. A partition is:
A) A logical division of a storage device
B) A CPU core
C) A keyboard key
D) A display pixel
Ans: A
139. Formatting a partition generally:
A) Prepares a filesystem for use and may erase existing data
B) Increases CPU cores
C) Repairs monitor pixels
D) Increases Internet bandwidth
Ans: A
140. A filesystem is used to:
A) Organize data on storage devices
B) Control CPU temperature
C) Display graphics
D) Generate electricity
Ans: A
141. NTFS is a:
A) Filesystem
B) CPU
C) Printer
D) Network cable
Ans: A
142. FAT32 is a:
A) Filesystem
B) CPU architecture
C) Monitor technology
D) Network topology
Ans: A
143. exFAT is commonly used for:
A) Removable storage
B) CPU processing
C) Monitor display
D) Power conversion
Ans: A
144. Drivers are installed to:
A) Enable operating systems to use hardware properly
B) Increase physical RAM automatically
C) Replace the CPU
D) Generate electricity
Ans: A
145. Chipset drivers relate to:
A) Motherboard/platform functionality
B) Printer paper
C) Mouse pad
D) Speaker volume only
Ans: A
146. Graphics drivers support:
A) Display/GPU functionality
B) CPU power supply
C) HDD rotation
D) Keyboard keys only
Ans: A
147. A hardware compatibility issue can occur when:
A) Hardware is unsupported by the system
B) The wallpaper changes
C) The user opens a text file
D) A document is printed correctly
Ans: A
148. Minimum system requirements specify:
A) Hardware/software needed to run software
B) Printer color
C) Keyboard size
D) Monitor stand height
Ans: A
149. During installation, restarting the computer may be:
A) Required
B) Always prohibited
C) A virus
D) A hardware failure
Ans: A
150. A device manager is commonly used to:
A) View/manage hardware devices and drivers
B) Edit photographs
C) Write essays
D) Browse websites
Ans: A
151. A yellow warning symbol in Device Manager can indicate:
A) A hardware/driver problem
B) Perfect operation
C) Extra RAM
D) Faster Internet
Ans: A
152. BIOS/UEFI settings are accessed:
A) During system startup using the appropriate key/menu
B) Only through a printer
C) From a mouse pad
D) By changing the monitor cable
Ans: A
153. Boot order determines:
A) Which device the system attempts to boot from first
B) CPU temperature
C) Printer speed
D) Keyboard layout
Ans: A
154. USB boot media is commonly used for:
A) OS installation/recovery
B) CPU cooling
C) Monitor calibration only
D) Increasing RAM
Ans: A
155. An ISO image may contain:
A) A complete image of installation media/filesystem contents
B) Only a keyboard driver
C) Only a mouse setting
D) Only a printer image
Ans: A
156. Recovery media is used to:
A) Repair/recover a computer system
B) Increase monitor size
C) Increase CPU frequency automatically
D) Replace RAM
Ans: A
157. A backup is:
A) A copy of data for recovery
B) A CPU instruction
C) A monitor setting
D) A network cable
Ans: A
158. Before major OS installation, an important precaution is:
A) Backup important data
B) Remove the keyboard
C) Disconnect all storage permanently
D) Delete the BIOS
Ans: A
159. A clean installation generally means:
A) Installing the OS as a fresh installation
B) Cleaning the monitor
C) Cleaning the keyboard
D) Cleaning the CPU physically
Ans: A
160. An upgrade installation generally:
A) Updates an existing software installation
B) Replaces the motherboard
C) Adds physical RAM automatically
D) Changes the monitor
Ans: A
161. A system image is:
A) A captured representation of a system/storage state
B) A monitor photograph
C) A keyboard layout
D) A printer cartridge
Ans: A
162. Restore points are associated with:
A) System recovery
B) Increasing RAM
C) Printing photographs
D) Network cabling
Ans: A
163. Hardware installation should follow:
A) Manufacturer instructions and compatibility requirements
B) Random component placement
C) Any available slot
D) Software documentation only
Ans: A
164. The correct tool for many PC screws is a:
A) Screwdriver
B) Paint brush
C) Keyboard
D) Scanner
Ans: A
165. For safe PC assembly, liquid should be:
A) Kept away from electronic components
B) Applied to the motherboard
C) Applied to RAM
D) Applied to CPU socket
Ans: A
166. A short circuit can occur when:
A) Conductive parts make unintended electrical contact
B) RAM is upgraded correctly
C) A document is saved
D) A printer is connected properly
Ans: A
167. A grounding/earthing system helps:
A) Reduce electrical safety risks
B) Increase storage
C) Increase CPU speed
D) Install Windows
Ans: A
168. An expansion card is:
A) A hardware card that adds functionality
B) A software license
C) A document
D) A password
Ans: A
169. Examples of expansion cards include:
A) Graphics and sound cards
B) Keyboard keys
C) CPU registers
D) Monitor pixels
Ans: A
170. An add-on NIC is an example of:
A) Expansion card
B) Storage filesystem
C) Operating system
D) Printer driver
Ans: A
171. The case’s I/O shield/opening corresponds to:
A) Motherboard rear I/O ports
B) CPU cache
C) RAM cells
D) HDD sectors
Ans: A
172. SATA data cable carries:
A) Data between storage device and controller
B) Main AC power
C) CPU cooling air
D) Printer ink
Ans: A
173. SATA power connector supplies:
A) Electrical power to SATA devices
B) Internet access
C) Video signal
D) Audio signal
Ans: A
174. An SSD generally has:
A) No spinning magnetic platters
B) Mechanical platters like an HDD
C) A printer head
D) A CRT tube
Ans: A
175. HDD stands for:
A) Hard Disk Drive
B) High Data Device
C) Hardware Data Driver
D) High Disk Data
Ans: A
176. SSD stands for:
A) Solid State Drive
B) System Storage Device
C) Serial Storage Disk
D) Solid Storage Data
Ans: A
177. Compared with HDDs, SSDs generally have:
A) Faster access and no moving disk platters
B) More mechanical parts
C) Slower access by design
D) Magnetic heads and platters
Ans: A
178. An HDD stores data magnetically on:
A) Platters
B) RAM cells
C) CPU registers
D) LCD pixels
Ans: A
179. An SSD generally stores data using:
A) Flash memory
B) Magnetic platters
C) Optical film
D) Paper
Ans: A
180. NVMe is commonly associated with:
A) High-speed SSD storage over PCIe
B) Printers
C) Keyboards
D) CRT displays
Ans: A
C. Troubleshooting — 181–260
181. Troubleshooting means:
A) Identifying and resolving problems
B) Installing games
C) Formatting every disk
D) Replacing every component
Ans: A
182. The first step in troubleshooting is generally:
A) Identify/understand the problem
B) Replace the CPU immediately
C) Format the hard disk
D) Replace the motherboard
Ans: A
183. A systematic troubleshooting approach helps:
A) Isolate the cause
B) Increase RAM
C) Improve monitor resolution automatically
D) Remove all files
Ans: A
184. If a PC has no power, check first:
A) Power source and connections
B) Browser history
C) Printer ink
D) Wallpaper
Ans: A
185. If the monitor shows “No Signal,” check:
A) Display cable and output source
B) Printer cartridge
C) Keyboard language
D) File extension
Ans: A
186. If a PC powers on but does not POST, possible causes include:
A) RAM, CPU, motherboard or power problems
B) Word formatting
C) Browser cookies
D) Printer paper
Ans: A
187. Reseating RAM means:
A) Removing and correctly reinstalling the RAM module
B) Formatting RAM
C) Deleting RAM
D) Converting RAM to ROM
Ans: A
188. A faulty RAM module may cause:
A) Boot failures or system instability
B) Better graphics
C) More storage
D) Faster printing
Ans: A
189. Beep codes during startup may indicate:
A) Hardware diagnostic conditions
B) Internet speed
C) Printer ink levels
D) File compression
Ans: A
190. If a computer frequently restarts unexpectedly, possible causes include:
A) Overheating, power or hardware/software problems
B) Monitor size
C) Keyboard color
D) Printer paper
Ans: A
191. Overheating can be caused by:
A) Dust, failed fans or poor cooling
B) More free disk space
C) A larger monitor
D) A new keyboard
Ans: A
192. A clogged heat sink can cause:
A) Increased temperature
B) More RAM
C) Faster CPU
D) Better networking
Ans: A
193. If a fan is not spinning, one possible cause is:
A) Power/connection or fan failure
B) Low disk space
C) Wrong file extension
D) Browser cache
Ans: A
194. If the computer becomes slow because storage is nearly full, a useful step is:
A) Free unnecessary storage
B) Replace keyboard
C) Remove monitor
D) Disconnect NIC
Ans: A
195. Low RAM can cause:
A) Increased use of virtual memory/paging
B) Better performance always
C) Larger monitor resolution
D) More CPU cores
Ans: A
196. Excessive paging can:
A) Reduce system responsiveness
B) Increase RAM physically
C) Improve SSD capacity
D) Increase CPU cores
Ans: A
197. A disk diagnostic tool can help detect:
A) Storage errors/health problems
B) Keyboard color
C) Printer paper size
D) Monitor stand problems
Ans: A
198. SMART is associated with:
A) Storage device health monitoring
B) Keyboard input
C) CPU instruction decoding
D) Printer scanning
Ans: A
199. SMART stands for:
A) Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology
B) System Memory Analysis and Repair Tool
C) Storage Monitoring and Recovery Technology
D) Software Memory Access Reporting Tool
Ans: A
200. Bad sectors are associated with:
A) Storage media problems
B) CPU registers
C) Keyboard keys
D) Monitor pixels
Ans: A
201. A corrupted filesystem can result in:
A) File access errors
B) More RAM
C) Faster CPU speed
D) Better graphics
Ans: A
202. A sudden power loss may result in:
A) File corruption
B) Increased storage
C) New CPU cores
D) Better network speed
Ans: A
203. If USB device is not recognized, check:
A) USB port, cable, power and driver/device compatibility
B) Printer paper
C) CPU thermal paste only
D) Monitor brightness
Ans: A
204. Trying another USB port is an example of:
A) Troubleshooting/isolation
B) Formatting
C) Encryption
D) Defragmentation
Ans: A
205. A faulty cable can cause:
A) Intermittent or complete device failure
B) Increased RAM
C) Better performance
D) More storage
Ans: A
206. If keyboard keys do not respond, check:
A) Connection and keyboard condition
B) CPU cache
C) HDD platter speed
D) GPU temperature only
Ans: A
207. If mouse movement is erratic, possible causes include:
A) Dirty sensor/surface or connection issues
B) Low RAM only
C) CPU cache
D) BIOS password only
Ans: A
208. If a printer is not responding, first check:
A) Power, connection and printer status
B) CPU socket
C) RAM timings
D) GPU cooler
Ans: A
209. A device driver conflict can cause:
A) Hardware malfunction
B) Increased disk capacity
C) Higher monitor size
D) Better battery life
Ans: A
210. Updating a driver may resolve:
A) Compatibility/functionality problems
B) Physical broken connectors
C) Cracked monitors
D) Burned components
Ans: A
211. If a hardware component is physically damaged:
A) Software troubleshooting alone may not fix it
B) Reinstalling Windows always fixes it
C) Antivirus will repair it
D) Defragmentation repairs it
Ans: A
212. A POST diagnostic test occurs:
A) During startup
B) During printing
C) During browsing
D) During file compression
Ans: A
213. A boot loop means:
A) Computer repeatedly restarts/returns to startup
B) Printer repeatedly prints
C) Mouse moves in circles
D) Keyboard types continuously
Ans: A
214. A possible cause of boot loop is:
A) OS corruption or hardware problems
B) Large monitor
C) New keyboard
D) Printer paper
Ans: A
215. Safe Mode starts the operating system with:
A) Limited drivers/services
B) Maximum graphics settings
C) No CPU
D) No memory
Ans: A
216. Safe Mode can be useful for:
A) Troubleshooting software/driver problems
B) Increasing RAM
C) Repairing physically broken screens
D) Increasing disk size
Ans: A
217. A blue screen/stop error can indicate:
A) Serious system/software/hardware problem
B) Printer success
C) High storage capacity
D) Normal printing
Ans: A
218. Event logs can help:
A) Diagnose system problems
B) Increase CPU speed
C) Add RAM
D) Replace cables
Ans: A
219. Device Manager can help identify:
A) Driver/device problems
B) Word grammar errors
C) Printer ink color
D) Internet websites
Ans: A
220. Resource conflicts occur when:
A) Hardware/software resources conflict
B) A file is saved normally
C) A document is printed
D) A monitor displays correctly
Ans: A
221. If the computer cannot detect a hard drive, check:
A) Power/data connection and firmware detection
B) Keyboard language
C) Printer ink
D) Mouse pad
Ans: A
222. If an SSD is not detected, possible causes include:
A) Connection, slot compatibility, firmware or drive failure
B) Wrong wallpaper
C) Printer settings
D) Speaker volume
Ans: A
223. A loose cable can cause:
A) Intermittent operation
B) Increased storage
C) More cores
D) Faster processor
Ans: A
224. Intermittent problems are often:
A) More difficult to reproduce consistently
B) Always caused by software
C) Always caused by RAM
D) Always caused by viruses
Ans: A
225. A multimeter can be used to:
A) Measure electrical quantities
B) Scan documents
C) Edit photos
D) Browse the Internet
Ans: A
226. A technician should use proper ESD precautions when handling:
A) Electronic components
B) Paper
C) Wooden furniture
D) Plastic covers only
Ans: A
227. Before opening a PC case, generally:
A) Shut down and disconnect power
B) Start a game
C) Open a browser
D) Format the drive
Ans: A
228. Troubleshooting by substitution means:
A) Replacing a suspect component temporarily with a known-good one
B) Formatting all disks
C) Installing every driver
D) Changing passwords
Ans: A
229. The purpose of isolation testing is to:
A) Narrow down the faulty component/cause
B) Increase storage
C) Improve graphics
D) Install Windows
Ans: A
230. A hardware diagnostic program can test:
A) Certain hardware components
B) Office grammar
C) Internet content
D) User passwords only
Ans: A
231. If system temperature is unusually high, inspect:
A) Cooling system
B) Keyboard layout
C) Printer paper
D) Browser bookmarks
Ans: A
232. Thermal throttling is:
A) Reduction of performance to control temperature/power
B) Increase of storage
C) Network encryption
D) Printer calibration
Ans: A
233. A failing PSU can cause:
A) Random shutdowns and instability
B) Better graphics
C) More RAM
D) Faster storage
Ans: A
234. A damaged power cable can cause:
A) Power failure/intermittent operation
B) Increased CPU speed
C) More storage
D) Better display
Ans: A
235. A UPS can help prevent sudden shutdown during:
A) Short power interruptions
B) Virus attacks
C) Software bugs
D) Printer jams
Ans: A
236. A UPS does not automatically:
A) Repair malware
B) Provide backup power
C) Protect against some power interruptions
D) Allow controlled shutdown
Ans: A
237. A surge protector protects primarily against:
A) Voltage surges
B) Viruses
C) Bad sectors
D) Driver errors
Ans: A
238. A blown fuse can result in:
A) Power interruption
B) Better performance
C) More RAM
D) Better graphics
Ans: A
239. A diagnostic beep pattern is often:
A) Manufacturer/firmware dependent
B) Identical on every computer
C) Always an Internet error
D) A printer message
Ans: A
240. When troubleshooting, documenting each change helps:
A) Track what affected the problem
B) Increase CPU speed
C) Add storage
D) Increase bandwidth
Ans: A
241. Rebooting can sometimes resolve:
A) Temporary software/device issues
B) Physically broken hardware
C) Burned motherboard components
D) Cracked screens
Ans: A
242. Reinstalling a driver may help when:
A) The driver installation is corrupted
B) A cable is physically cut
C) RAM is physically damaged
D) Monitor is cracked
Ans: A
243. Firmware updates should be performed:
A) Carefully according to manufacturer instructions
B) Randomly every day
C) Only by formatting RAM
D) By deleting BIOS
Ans: A
244. Interruptions during firmware updates can:
A) Potentially render a device unusable
B) Increase storage
C) Improve RAM
D) Improve printer speed
Ans: A
245. BIOS reset can be useful for:
A) Recovering from incorrect firmware settings
B) Removing all viruses
C) Increasing RAM
D) Replacing CPU
Ans: A
246. Clearing CMOS may reset:
A) Firmware configuration settings
B) All hard-drive data
C) Monitor pixels
D) Printer ink
Ans: A
247. A dead CMOS battery may cause:
A) Loss/reset of certain firmware settings and clock issues
B) More RAM
C) Better CPU performance
D) Faster Internet
Ans: A
248. The common CMOS battery type in many PCs is:
A) CR2032
B) AA only
C) AAA only
D) 9V only
Ans: A
249. If system time repeatedly resets, one possible cause is:
A) Weak CMOS battery
B) Full RAM
C) New monitor
D) Printer driver
Ans: A
250. A hardware compatibility list helps determine:
A) Whether components can work together
B) Printer ink color
C) User password strength
D) File compression ratio
Ans: A
251. A BIOS password is associated with:
A) Firmware-level access control
B) Printer ink
C) RAM speed
D) Monitor brightness
Ans: A
252. A thermal sensor measures:
A) Temperature
B) Storage capacity
C) Network speed
D) Printer speed
Ans: A
253. SMART data is particularly useful for monitoring:
A) HDD/SSD health indicators
B) Keyboard condition
C) Monitor size
D) CPU instruction set only
Ans: A
254. A failing fan may produce:
A) Noise or overheating
B) More RAM
C) Faster CPU
D) More storage
Ans: A
255. Strange clicking from an HDD may indicate:
A) Possible mechanical drive failure
B) Increased RAM
C) Better performance
D) Normal CPU operation
Ans: A
256. A physically damaged HDD should generally be:
A) Replaced/repaired as appropriate and data recovered from backup if needed
B) Formatted repeatedly
C) Heated
D) Hit with a tool
Ans: A
257. The safest source for replacement hardware specifications is:
A) Manufacturer documentation
B) Random online comments only
C) Unverified advertisements
D) Guesswork
Ans: A
258. A hardware inventory records:
A) Installed hardware/components
B) Only passwords
C) Only websites
D) Only emails
Ans: A
259. Preventive maintenance aims to:
A) Reduce likelihood of hardware problems
B) Increase virus infections
C) Delete backups
D) Reduce cooling
Ans: A
260. Regular cleaning of PC vents helps:
A) Maintain cooling airflow
B) Increase RAM
C) Increase CPU cores
D) Encrypt data
Ans: A
D. Computer Viruses & Malware — 261–330
261. A computer virus is:
A) Malicious code that can replicate by infecting other files/programs
B) A hardware component
C) A printer driver
D) A network cable
Ans: A
262. Malware means:
A) Malicious software
B) Memory software
C) Main hardware
D) Manual software
Ans: A
263. A worm differs from a traditional virus because it can:
A) Spread automatically across networks/systems
B) Only infect printers
C) Require paper
D) Increase RAM
Ans: A
264. A Trojan is malware that:
A) Masquerades as legitimate/useful software
B) Is always hardware
C) Repairs files
D) Increases storage
Ans: A
265. Ransomware generally:
A) Encrypts/locks data and demands payment
B) Increases CPU speed
C) Cleans storage
D) Repairs Windows
Ans: A
266. Spyware is designed to:
A) Secretly collect information/monitor activity
B) Cool the CPU
C) Increase RAM
D) Print documents
Ans: A
267. A keylogger records:
A) Keystrokes
B) Monitor pixels
C) CPU temperature only
D) Printer pages
Ans: A
268. Adware commonly:
A) Displays unwanted advertisements
B) Repairs hardware
C) Increases storage
D) Replaces RAM
Ans: A
269. A rootkit is designed to:
A) Hide malicious activity and maintain privileged access
B) Improve graphics
C) Format printers
D) Increase RAM
Ans: A
270. Botnet refers to:
A) A network of compromised devices controlled by an attacker
B) A network cable
C) A motherboard
D) A printer network only
Ans: A
271. Antivirus software is used to:
A) Detect/prevent/remove malware
B) Increase RAM
C) Increase CPU cores
D) Replace a motherboard
Ans: A
272. Antivirus signature detection relies on:
A) Known malware patterns/signatures
B) Monitor resolution
C) CPU temperature
D) Keyboard type
Ans: A
273. Heuristic detection attempts to:
A) Identify suspicious characteristics/behaviour
B) Increase storage
C) Print documents
D) Control monitor brightness
Ans: A
274. Real-time protection means:
A) Monitoring activity continuously/as it occurs
B) Scanning only once a year
C) Turning off antivirus
D) Formatting the disk
Ans: A
275. Malware can spread through:
A) Infected files, downloads, email attachments and removable media
B) Only monitors
C) Only keyboards
D) Only speakers
Ans: A
276. A malicious email attachment may:
A) Infect a computer when executed/opened
B) Increase RAM
C) Repair Windows
D) Improve graphics
Ans: A
277. Phishing commonly attempts to:
A) Trick users into revealing information
B) Repair hardware
C) Increase disk space
D) Install legitimate drivers
Ans: A
278. A suspicious link should generally be:
A) Avoided unless verified
B) Opened immediately
C) Forwarded to everyone
D) Downloaded repeatedly
Ans: A
279. Software updates can help:
A) Fix security vulnerabilities
B) Increase monitor size
C) Replace RAM physically
D) Repair broken cables
Ans: A
280. Security patches are intended to:
A) Fix vulnerabilities/bugs
B) Increase CPU cores
C) Add printer ink
D) Improve keyboard layout
Ans: A
281. An infected USB drive can:
A) Spread malware
B) Increase RAM
C) Improve CPU performance
D) Repair Windows
Ans: A
282. Autorun malware can exploit:
A) Automatic execution mechanisms
B) Monitor brightness
C) Printer paper
D) CPU cooling
Ans: A
283. A macro virus commonly targets:
A) Documents containing macros
B) CPU hardware
C) Monitor cables
D) RAM chips physically
Ans: A
284. Boot-sector malware targets:
A) Boot-related areas of storage media
B) Printer cartridges
C) Monitor pixels
D) Keyboard switches
Ans: A
285. File-infector malware targets:
A) Executable files
B) Monitor screens
C) CPU fans
D) Power cables
Ans: A
286. Polymorphic malware:
A) Changes its code/signature to evade detection
B) Changes CPU physically
C) Increases RAM
D) Replaces the monitor
Ans: A
287. Malware persistence means:
A) Ability to remain active/relaunch after reboot
B) Faster printing
C) More storage
D) Better display
Ans: A
288. Quarantine in antivirus software means:
A) Isolating suspected malicious files
B) Deleting RAM
C) Formatting CPU
D) Turning off the monitor
Ans: A
289. A false positive occurs when:
A) Legitimate software/file is incorrectly identified as malicious
B) Malware is correctly detected
C) RAM fails
D) CPU overheats
Ans: A
290. A false negative occurs when:
A) Malware is not detected
B) Legitimate software is detected
C) Printer fails
D) Monitor shuts down
Ans: A
291. Antivirus definitions should be:
A) Updated regularly
B) Never updated
C) Deleted
D) Printed
Ans: A
292. Backups are important against ransomware because:
A) They may allow recovery without relying on the encrypted copy
B) They prevent every infection
C) They increase RAM
D) They repair CPUs
Ans: A
293. An offline backup is:
A) Not continuously connected to the computer/network
B) Always connected
C) Stored only in RAM
D) Stored only in CPU cache
Ans: A
294. The 3-2-1 backup concept generally means:
A) Multiple copies, different media, with one copy offsite/offline
B) One copy only
C) Three CPUs and two monitors
D) Three passwords
Ans: A
295. Least privilege means:
A) Users/processes receive only necessary permissions
B) Everyone receives administrator rights
C) No passwords are used
D) All files are public
Ans: A
296. Administrator accounts have:
A) Elevated privileges
B) No permissions
C) Only printer access
D) Only keyboard access
Ans: A
297. Strong passwords help protect against:
A) Unauthorized account access
B) CPU overheating
C) Broken cables
D) Bad sectors
Ans: A
298. Multi-factor authentication uses:
A) More than one authentication factor
B) Only one password
C) Only a username
D) No authentication
Ans: A
299. Antivirus software cannot:
A) Guarantee protection against every possible threat
B) Detect any malware
C) Scan files
D) Provide some malware protection
Ans: A
300. Malware removal may require:
A) Antivirus tools, safe mode/recovery tools or system restoration depending on the case
B) Replacing monitor only
C) Changing keyboard
D) Increasing RAM only
Ans: A
301. A virus can potentially damage:
A) Files and system operation
B) Only keyboard keys
C) Only monitor stand
D) Only printer paper
Ans: A
302. Worm propagation commonly uses:
A) Network vulnerabilities
B) Printer ink
C) CPU fans
D) Monitor pixels
Ans: A
303. A Trojan generally depends on:
A) User/system executing or installing the disguised software
B) CPU physically changing
C) RAM becoming ROM
D) Monitor brightness
Ans: A
304. Social engineering attacks primarily exploit:
A) Human behaviour/trust
B) CPU architecture
C) RAM speed
D) Monitor resolution
Ans: A
305. Phishing is an example of:
A) Social engineering
B) CPU cooling
C) Storage technology
D) Display technology
Ans: A
306. Spear phishing is:
A) Targeted phishing
B) A storage device
C) A CPU feature
D) A display standard
Ans: A
307. Smishing uses:
A) SMS/text messages for phishing
B) Printers
C) RAM
D) HDMI
Ans: A
308. Vishing uses:
A) Voice/phone communication for phishing
B) Hard disks
C) Monitors
D) CPU cache
Ans: A
309. Malicious software should not be installed from:
A) Untrusted sources
B) Verified official sources
C) Trusted repositories
D) Known vendors
Ans: A
310. Application whitelisting allows:
A) Approved applications to run
B) Every program to run
C) No applications
D) Only games
Ans: A
311. Endpoint security protects:
A) Computing devices/endpoints
B) Only printers
C) Only monitors
D) Only keyboards
Ans: A
312. A security incident is:
A) An event that may compromise security
B) A CPU instruction
C) A storage partition
D) A printer command
Ans: A
313. If malware is suspected, an important action may be:
A) Isolate the affected system from the network
B) Share the malware
C) Disable every backup
D) Forward suspicious files
Ans: A
314. Network isolation can help:
A) Prevent further spread
B) Increase RAM
C) Improve monitor resolution
D) Repair CPU
Ans: A
315. A malicious executable can:
A) Execute harmful instructions
B) Increase storage capacity
C) Repair motherboard
D) Improve CPU cooling
Ans: A
316. File extensions can sometimes indicate:
A) File type
B) CPU speed
C) RAM size
D) Monitor resolution
Ans: A
317. Attackers may disguise malicious files using:
A) Misleading filenames/extensions/icons
B) CPU cooling
C) RAM slots
D) HDMI
Ans: A
318. Disabling security software without justification can:
A) Increase security risk
B) Increase RAM
C) Improve storage
D) Repair hardware
Ans: A
319. Security logs can assist with:
A) Investigating suspicious activity
B) Increasing CPU speed
C) Increasing storage
D) Fixing broken screens
Ans: A
320. Regular backups are part of:
A) Data protection
B) CPU architecture
C) Monitor technology
D) Printer technology
Ans: A
321. Encryption can protect:
A) Confidentiality of data
B) CPU temperature
C) Monitor brightness
D) Keyboard keys
Ans: A
322. Malware that encrypts files for extortion is commonly:
A) Ransomware
B) Adware
C) Driver
D) Firmware
Ans: A
323. Spyware may collect:
A) User activity/information
B) CPU cores
C) Monitor pixels
D) RAM slots
Ans: A
324. A keylogger may capture:
A) Passwords typed by users
B) CPU temperature
C) Printer pages
D) Monitor size
Ans: A
325. A botnet can be used for:
A) Coordinated malicious activities such as attacks
B) CPU cooling
C) Data backup only
D) Printer calibration
Ans: A
326. DDoS attacks commonly involve:
A) Large numbers of systems sending traffic toward a target
B) CPU replacement
C) RAM formatting
D) Printer cleaning
Ans: A
327. Malware prevention includes:
A) Updates, antivirus, safe browsing and backups
B) Disabling all security
C) Opening unknown attachments
D) Using weak passwords
Ans: A
328. Security awareness training helps users:
A) Recognize and avoid threats
B) Increase CPU speed
C) Install RAM
D) Repair monitors
Ans: A
329. A suspicious attachment should be:
A) Verified before opening
B) Opened immediately
C) Forwarded
D) Renamed randomly
Ans: A
330. Malware analysis should be performed:
A) In an appropriate controlled/security environment
B) On every production system
C) By opening malware casually
D) By forwarding it to others
Ans: A
E. Memory System — 331–400
331. RAM stands for:
A) Random Access Memory
B) Read Access Memory
C) Rapid Application Memory
D) Random Application Module
Ans: A
332. RAM is generally:
A) Volatile memory
B) Permanent storage
C) Optical storage
D) Mechanical storage
Ans: A
333. Volatile memory loses its contents when:
A) Power is removed
B) Monitor is turned off only
C) Keyboard is disconnected
D) Printer is turned off
Ans: A
334. ROM stands for:
A) Read-Only Memory
B) Random Output Memory
C) Read Output Module
D) Rapid Operating Memory
Ans: A
335. ROM is generally:
A) Non-volatile
B) Always volatile
C) A CPU register
D) A printer buffer
Ans: A
336. DRAM stands for:
A) Dynamic Random Access Memory
B) Digital Random Application Memory
C) Dynamic Read Access Module
D) Direct RAM
Ans: A
337. SRAM stands for:
A) Static Random Access Memory
B) System Random Access Module
C) Static Read Application Memory
D) Serial RAM
Ans: A
338. DRAM requires:
A) Periodic refreshing
B) No power
C) Printing
D) Magnetic platters
Ans: A
339. SRAM is commonly used for:
A) Cache memory
B) Optical discs
C) Magnetic tapes
D) Printers
Ans: A
340. Compared with DRAM, SRAM is generally:
A) Faster and more expensive per bit
B) Slower and cheaper per bit
C) Optical
D) Mechanical
Ans: A
341. DRAM is commonly used as:
A) Main system memory
B) Printer paper
C) CPU register only
D) Monitor memory only
Ans: A
342. DDR stands for:
A) Double Data Rate
B) Digital Data Register
C) Dynamic Data Read
D) Direct Data RAM
Ans: A
343. DDR memory transfers data:
A) On both clock edges
B) Only once per minute
C) Only during boot
D) Through optical media
Ans: A
344. DIMM stands for:
A) Dual Inline Memory Module
B) Digital Internal Memory Module
C) Dual Internet Memory Machine
D) Direct Input Memory Module
Ans: A
345. RAM modules are commonly:
A) DIMMs in desktop systems
B) Printers
C) CPUs
D) Monitors
Ans: A
346. SO-DIMM is commonly found in:
A) Laptops/compact systems
B) Printers only
C) Desktop monitors
D) Speakers
Ans: A
347. Memory capacity is commonly measured in:
A) GB/TB
B) Hertz only
C) Volts only
D) Pixels only
Ans: A
348. 1 GB is commonly represented in computing as:
A) 1024 MB
B) 100 MB
C) 10 MB
D) 8 MB
Ans: A
349. Cache memory is located:
A) On/near the processor architecture
B) Inside a printer
C) On a monitor stand
D) Inside keyboard keys
Ans: A
350. Cache memory stores:
A) Frequently/recently used data and instructions
B) Paper documents
C) Printer ink
D) Network cables
Ans: A
351. Cache improves performance by:
A) Reducing average memory access latency
B) Increasing monitor size
C) Adding hard-disk platters
D) Increasing printer ink
Ans: A
352. L1 cache is typically:
A) Very fast and relatively small
B) Very slow and huge
C) Optical storage
D) External USB storage
Ans: A
353. L3 cache is generally:
A) Larger and slower than L1 cache
B) Smaller and faster than L1
C) A hard disk
D) A monitor buffer
Ans: A
354. Memory hierarchy organizes storage based partly on:
A) Speed, cost and capacity
B) Keyboard color
C) Monitor size
D) Printer type only
Ans: A
355. At the top of a typical memory hierarchy are:
A) Registers/cache
B) Magnetic tapes
C) Optical discs
D) External archives
Ans: A
356. Main memory is generally:
A) Faster than secondary storage
B) Slower than tape
C) Non-electronic
D) Paper-based
Ans: A
357. Secondary storage is generally:
A) Non-volatile
B) Always volatile
C) CPU cache
D) CPU register
Ans: A
358. Which is non-volatile?
A) SSD
B) RAM
C) CPU register
D) Cache
Ans: A
359. Flash memory is:
A) Non-volatile semiconductor memory
B) Volatile CPU cache
C) Mechanical storage
D) Magnetic tape
Ans: A
360. USB flash drives use:
A) Flash memory
B) Vacuum tubes
C) Magnetic tape only
D) RAM only
Ans: A
361. EEPROM stands for:
A) Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory
B) Electronic External Program RAM
C) Enhanced EEPROM Operating Module
D) Electrical Extended ROM
Ans: A
362. EEPROM can be:
A) Electrically erased and reprogrammed
B) Used only once
C) Mechanically erased
D) Printed
Ans: A
363. Flash memory is a type of:
A) Electrically erasable non-volatile memory
B) Volatile RAM
C) CPU register
D) Magnetic disk
Ans: A
364. Virtual memory uses:
A) Storage space to supplement RAM
B) CPU cache only
C) Monitor memory
D) Printer memory only
Ans: A
365. Virtual memory is:
A) Slower than physical RAM
B) Faster than CPU cache
C) A type of CPU
D) A monitor
Ans: A
366. Paging is associated with:
A) Virtual memory management
B) Printing
C) Display output
D) Keyboard input
Ans: A
367. Page file/swap space is used for:
A) Virtual memory
B) CPU cooling
C) Graphics output
D) Network routing
Ans: A
368. Excessive swapping can result in:
A) Poor performance
B) More physical RAM
C) Better CPU speed
D) More storage capacity
Ans: A
369. Memory latency refers to:
A) Delay before data can be accessed
B) Storage capacity
C) Monitor refresh rate only
D) Printer speed
Ans: A
370. Memory bandwidth refers to:
A) Rate of data transfer
B) RAM physical size
C) CPU temperature
D) Storage lifespan
Ans: A
371. ECC memory provides:
A) Error detection/correction capabilities
B) More monitor pixels
C) Faster Internet
D) Printer support
Ans: A
372. ECC stands for:
A) Error-Correcting Code
B) Electronic Computer Control
C) Extended Cache Controller
D) Error Computer Channel
Ans: A
373. ECC memory is particularly useful where:
A) Data integrity is important
B) Monitor size is important
C) Printer speed is important
D) Keyboard color matters
Ans: A
374. Memory modules should be installed according to:
A) Motherboard specifications
B) Monitor manual only
C) Printer specifications
D) Keyboard manual
Ans: A
375. Dual-channel memory can:
A) Increase memory bandwidth when properly configured
B) Double physical RAM automatically
C) Replace CPU
D) Replace storage
Ans: A
376. Quad-channel memory is supported only by:
A) Platforms designed to support it
B) Every motherboard
C) Every laptop
D) Every CPU
Ans: A
377. Mixing incompatible RAM can result in:
A) Failure to boot or instability
B) Better performance always
C) Increased storage
D) More CPU cores
Ans: A
378. RAM speed is commonly specified in:
A) MT/s or historically MHz
B) Volts only
C) Pixels
D) Inches
Ans: A
379. Memory timings describe:
A) Various latency characteristics of memory operations
B) Monitor brightness
C) HDD capacity
D) CPU temperature
Ans: A
380. Higher RAM capacity can help when:
A) Applications require more memory
B) Monitor is too small
C) Printer is slow
D) Keyboard is damaged
Ans: A
381. Memory shortage may cause:
A) Increased paging
B) More CPU cores
C) More disk capacity
D) Better graphics automatically
Ans: A
382. RAM testing software can identify:
A) Some memory errors
B) Printer ink problems
C) Monitor scratches
D) Network cable damage
Ans: A
383. A memory address identifies:
A) A location in memory
B) A printer
C) A monitor
D) A network cable
Ans: A
384. Addressable memory means:
A) Individual memory locations can be addressed
B) Memory can print
C) Memory is always removable
D) Memory is optical
Ans: A
385. Registers are:
A) Fastest storage locations used directly by CPU operations
B) External disks
C) Optical discs
D) Printers
Ans: A
386. Accumulator is traditionally:
A) A CPU register used for arithmetic/logical operations
B) A hard disk
C) A printer
D) A network card
Ans: A
387. Program Counter stores:
A) Address of next instruction
B) Printer status
C) Monitor brightness
D) RAM capacity
Ans: A
388. Instruction Register holds:
A) Current instruction being processed
B) User password only
C) Printer settings
D) Network cable information
Ans: A
389. Cache hit means:
A) Requested data is found in cache
B) Cache has failed
C) RAM is full
D) HDD is damaged
Ans: A
390. Cache miss means:
A) Requested data is not found in the cache
B) CPU is switched off
C) Monitor is off
D) RAM is removed
Ans: A
391. A higher cache hit rate generally:
A) Improves performance
B) Reduces performance always
C) Deletes data
D) Reduces storage
Ans: A
392. Memory controller manages:
A) Communication with system memory
B) Printer paper
C) Monitor pixels
D) Keyboard keys
Ans: A
393. Modern processors often integrate:
A) Memory controllers
B) Printers
C) Monitors
D) Keyboards
Ans: A
394. ROM is useful for storing:
A) Firmware
B) Temporary application data only
C) User documents only
D) Browser cache only
Ans: A
395. PROM stands for:
A) Programmable Read-Only Memory
B) Primary RAM Operating Module
C) Program Random Output Memory
D) Permanent RAM
Ans: A
396. PROM can generally be programmed:
A) Once after manufacture
B) Unlimited times without special technology
C) Every second
D) Only through RAM
Ans: A
397. EPROM can be erased using:
A) Ultraviolet light
B) Magnetic tape
C) Printer ink
D) HDMI
Ans: A
398. EEPROM is erased using:
A) Electrical methods
B) Ultraviolet light only
C) Mechanical force
D) Magnetic tape
Ans: A
399. DRAM stores bits using:
A) Memory cells involving capacitive storage
B) Magnetic platters
C) Optical pits only
D) CPU registers only
Ans: A
400. SRAM does not require:
A) Periodic refresh like DRAM
B) Electricity
C) Transistors
D) Memory addressing
Ans: A
F. Storage Devices & RAID — 401–450
401. A hard disk drive uses:
A) Magnetic storage
B) Optical-only storage
C) RAM only
D) CPU cache
Ans: A
402. An HDD contains:
A) Platters and read/write heads
B) CPU cores
C) LCD pixels
D) Printer nozzles
Ans: A
403. HDD platters rotate at:
A) A specified rotational speed
B) Zero speed
C) CPU clock speed
D) Monitor refresh rate
Ans: A
404. HDD RPM means:
A) Revolutions Per Minute
B) Random Processing Memory
C) Read Program Module
D) Rapid Peripheral Mode
Ans: A
405. SSDs use:
A) Flash memory
B) Magnetic platters
C) Tape reels
D) Vacuum tubes
Ans: A
406. A major advantage of SSD over HDD is:
A) No moving mechanical parts
B) More moving parts
C) Requires magnetic platters
D) Requires optical laser
Ans: A
407. HDD seek time refers to:
A) Time required for head movement to the desired track/location
B) Time to print
C) CPU boot time only
D) Monitor response
Ans: A
408. SSD access time is generally:
A) Much lower than HDD mechanical seek time
B) Higher because of platters
C) Based on head movement
D) Based on tape rewind
Ans: A
409. Optical storage includes:
A) CD/DVD/Blu-ray
B) RAM
C) SSD
D) CPU cache
Ans: A
410. CD stands for:
A) Compact Disc
B) Computer Drive
C) Central Disc
D) Compact Data
Ans: A
411. DVD stands for:
A) Digital Versatile Disc
B) Digital Video Device
C) Data Visual Disc
D) Digital Virtual Drive
Ans: A
412. Blu-ray uses:
A) Blue-violet laser technology
B) Magnetic heads
C) RAM cells
D) CPU registers
Ans: A
413. A USB flash drive is:
A) Solid-state removable storage
B) Magnetic tape
C) Optical storage
D) CPU cache
Ans: A
414. SD cards use:
A) Flash memory
B) Magnetic platters
C) Vacuum tubes
D) CPU registers
Ans: A
415. Storage capacity is commonly measured in:
A) GB/TB
B) Hertz
C) Pixels
D) Volts
Ans: A
416. RAID stands for:
A) Redundant Array of Independent Disks
B) Random Access Integrated Disk
C) Rapid Array Internal Device
D) Redundant Application Interface Drive
Ans: A
417. RAID combines:
A) Multiple storage drives into a logical storage arrangement
B) Multiple keyboards
C) Multiple monitors only
D) Multiple CPUs always
Ans: A
418. RAID can be used for:
A) Performance, redundancy, or both depending on level
B) CPU cooling only
C) Keyboard input
D) Display output
Ans: A
419. RAID 0 provides:
A) Striping without redundancy
B) Mirroring
C) Dedicated parity only
D) Triple mirroring
Ans: A
420. RAID 0 primarily improves:
A) Performance through striping
B) Fault tolerance
C) Data redundancy
D) Power backup
Ans: A
421. RAID 0 has:
A) No fault tolerance
B) Full mirroring
C) Dedicated parity
D) Triple redundancy
Ans: A
422. RAID 1 uses:
A) Mirroring
B) Striping without redundancy
C) Dedicated parity
D) No redundancy
Ans: A
423. RAID 1 provides:
A) Data redundancy through mirroring
B) No redundancy
C) Only compression
D) CPU virtualization
Ans: A
424. RAID 1 generally requires at least:
A) 2 drives
B) 1 drive
C) 3 drives
D) 5 drives
Ans: A
425. RAID 5 uses:
A) Striping with distributed parity
B) Mirroring only
C) No redundancy
D) Triple mirroring
Ans: A
426. RAID 5 generally requires at least:
A) 3 drives
B) 1 drive
C) 2 drives
D) 10 drives
Ans: A
427. RAID 6 uses:
A) Dual distributed parity
B) No parity
C) Mirroring only
D) Single-drive storage
Ans: A
428. RAID 6 can tolerate failure of:
A) Two drives in the array
B) No drives
C) Every drive
D) Only half a drive
Ans: A
429. RAID 10 is commonly:
A) Combination of mirroring and striping
B) Only parity
C) Only striping
D) Only compression
Ans: A
430. RAID 10 generally requires at least:
A) 4 drives
B) 1 drive
C) 2 drives
D) 3 drives
Ans: A
431. RAID is not a substitute for:
A) Backup
B) Storage
C) Redundancy
D) Disk management
Ans: A
432. A backup protects against:
A) Data loss scenarios including accidental deletion and some disasters
B) Only CPU overheating
C) Only monitor failure
D) Only keyboard failure
Ans: A
433. RAID 0 is sometimes called:
A) Disk striping
B) Disk mirroring
C) Disk parity
D) Disk cloning
Ans: A
434. RAID 1 is called:
A) Disk mirroring
B) Disk striping only
C) Disk parity
D) Disk spanning only
Ans: A
435. RAID 5 distributes parity:
A) Across the member drives
B) On a printer
C) In RAM only
D) On CPU cache
Ans: A
436. RAID 6 provides:
A) Greater fault tolerance than RAID 5
B) No redundancy
C) Only performance
D) No storage
Ans: A
437. A hot spare is:
A) A standby drive available for replacement/rebuild
B) A CPU fan
C) A power cable
D) A printer
Ans: A
438. RAID rebuild means:
A) Reconstructing redundant data on a replacement drive
B) Reinstalling Windows
C) Formatting RAM
D) Replacing CPU
Ans: A
439. During RAID rebuild, performance may:
A) Be affected
B) Always double
C) Become infinite
D) Become unrelated to storage
Ans: A
440. Disk striping divides data into:
A) Blocks distributed across drives
B) Passwords
C) CPU registers
D) Monitor pixels
Ans: A
441. Mirroring stores:
A) Duplicate copies of data
B) Only parity
C) No data
D) Compressed CPU instructions
Ans: A
442. Parity is used in RAID to:
A) Reconstruct data after certain drive failures
B) Increase CPU clock speed
C) Cool drives
D) Display images
Ans: A
443. Storage fragmentation can affect:
A) HDD performance
B) CPU core count
C) Monitor size
D) Keyboard layout
Ans: A
444. Defragmentation is mainly relevant to:
A) HDDs
B) RAM
C) CPU cache
D) ROM
Ans: A
445. SSDs generally should not be treated like HDDs for:
A) Traditional defragmentation
B) File storage
C) Operating systems
D) Data backup
Ans: A
446. TRIM is associated with:
A) SSD management/performance
B) CRT monitors
C) Printers
D) CPUs
Ans: A
447. A filesystem resides on:
A) Storage media
B) CPU registers
C) Monitor pixels
D) Keyboard switches
Ans: A
448. Disk partitioning divides:
A) A physical storage device into logical regions
B) RAM into CPU cores
C) Monitor into pixels
D) CPU into printers
Ans: A
449. Formatting can:
A) Prepare a partition with a filesystem
B) Increase physical storage capacity
C) Increase CPU cores
D) Increase RAM physically
Ans: A
450. Secure data disposal may require:
A) Appropriate sanitization methods depending on storage technology and requirements
B) Simply changing the filename
C) Moving the file to another folder
D) Changing the desktop wallpaper
Ans: A
G. CPU, NIC & High-Speed Memory — 451–500
451. CPU stands for:
A) Central Processing Unit
B) Computer Peripheral Unit
C) Central Program Utility
D) Computer Processing Utility
Ans: A
452. The CPU executes:
A) Instructions
B) Printer ink
C) Monitor pixels
D) Network cables
Ans: A
453. CPU registers provide:
A) Very fast storage for processing
B) Long-term file storage
C) Optical storage
D) Network storage
Ans: A
454. The ALU performs:
A) Arithmetic and logical operations
B) File backup only
C) Network cabling
D) Printing
Ans: A
455. The Control Unit:
A) Directs processor operations
B) Stores all user files permanently
C) Prints documents
D) Controls monitor brightness only
Ans: A
456. A CPU core is:
A) An individual processing unit within a multicore processor
B) A storage sector
C) A monitor pixel
D) A network cable
Ans: A
457. A dual-core CPU has:
A) Two processing cores
B) Two RAM modules necessarily
C) Two monitors
D) Two hard disks necessarily
Ans: A
458. A quad-core CPU has:
A) Four processing cores
B) Four hard disks necessarily
C) Four monitors
D) Four keyboards
Ans: A
459. CPU cache is used to:
A) Speed access to frequently needed information
B) Store paper documents
C) Connect to Wi-Fi
D) Print files
Ans: A
460. CPU frequency is measured in:
A) Hz/GHz
B) GB only
C) Pixels
D) Volts only
Ans: A
461. CPU power consumption generates:
A) Heat
B) Data storage
C) Printer ink
D) Network cables
Ans: A
462. A CPU cooler helps:
A) Remove heat from the processor
B) Store files
C) Connect Ethernet
D) Increase RAM
Ans: A
463. Thermal throttling protects against:
A) Excessive temperature/power conditions
B) Data backup
C) Malware
D) Printer jams
Ans: A
464. Instruction set refers to:
A) Instructions a processor can execute
B) Keyboard layout
C) Printer commands only
D) Monitor settings
Ans: A
465. x86 is associated with:
A) A family of CPU instruction set architectures
B) Printer technology
C) Storage filesystem
D) Monitor technology
Ans: A
466. ARM is:
A) A CPU architecture family
B) A storage filesystem
C) A printer technology
D) A network cable
Ans: A
467. RISC generally emphasizes:
A) Reduced/instruction simplicity compared with traditional CISC approaches
B) More printer features
C) Storage capacity
D) Monitor resolution
Ans: A
468. CISC stands for:
A) Complex Instruction Set Computer
B) Central Integrated Storage Computer
C) Computer Instruction Storage Controller
D) Complex Internet System Computer
Ans: A
469. RISC stands for:
A) Reduced Instruction Set Computer
B) Random Integrated Storage Computer
C) Rapid Instruction System Controller
D) Reduced Internet Storage Computer
Ans: A
470. A NIC is used to:
A) Connect a computer to a network
B) Increase RAM
C) Cool the CPU
D) Store files
Ans: A
471. NIC stands for:
A) Network Interface Card
B) Network Internet Controller
C) New Interface Computer
D) Network Input Circuit
Ans: A
472. A wired Ethernet NIC commonly has:
A) RJ-45 port
B) HDMI port
C) VGA port
D) Audio jack only
Ans: A
473. A wireless NIC commonly provides:
A) Wi-Fi connectivity
B) Printer ink
C) CPU cooling
D) RAM storage
Ans: A
474. MAC address is associated with:
A) Network interface identification at the data-link level
B) CPU temperature
C) RAM capacity
D) Monitor resolution
Ans: A
475. MAC stands for:
A) Media Access Control
B) Memory Access Computer
C) Main Application Controller
D) Machine Access Code
Ans: A
476. An Ethernet NIC communicates using:
A) Network frames
B) Printer cartridges
C) CPU registers
D) Optical pixels
Ans: A
477. NIC drivers enable:
A) Operating system communication with the network adapter
B) CPU cooling
C) RAM storage
D) Monitor brightness
Ans: A
478. A faulty NIC can cause:
A) Network connectivity problems
B) CPU overheating necessarily
C) More RAM
D) Better graphics
Ans: A
479. Cache memory is an example of:
A) High-speed memory
B) Secondary optical storage
C) Mechanical storage
D) Printer memory
Ans: A
480. Registers are generally:
A) Faster than cache
B) Slower than HDD
C) Optical
D) Mechanical
Ans: A
481. SRAM is generally used where:
A) Very fast memory is needed
B) Large cheap archival storage is needed
C) Optical storage is required
D) Printing is required
Ans: A
482. DRAM is commonly used for:
A) Main memory
B) CPU registers
C) HDD platters
D) Printer cartridges
Ans: A
483. Cache locality includes:
A) Temporal and spatial locality
B) Printer and scanner locality
C) Network and monitor locality
D) Keyboard locality only
Ans: A
484. Temporal locality means:
A) Recently accessed data is likely to be accessed again
B) Data is always stored permanently
C) Data is printed
D) Data is encrypted
Ans: A
485. Spatial locality means:
A) Nearby memory locations are likely to be accessed
B) Data is stored only on HDD
C) Data is always encrypted
D) Data is printed
Ans: A
486. Cache hit ratio indicates:
A) Fraction of accesses found in cache
B) RAM physical capacity
C) CPU temperature
D) Storage capacity
Ans: A
487. A higher cache hit ratio is generally:
A) Beneficial for performance
B) Always harmful
C) Related to printer speed
D) Related to monitor size
Ans: A
488. CPU pipeline allows:
A) Overlapping stages of instruction processing
B) Multiple printers
C) More RAM physically
D) More storage capacity
Ans: A
489. Pipelining can improve:
A) Instruction throughput
B) Monitor size
C) Printer ink capacity
D) HDD capacity
Ans: A
490. A pipeline hazard can:
A) Reduce pipeline efficiency
B) Increase storage
C) Increase monitor resolution
D) Add CPU cores
Ans: A
491. Branch prediction is used to:
A) Predict the outcome of conditional branches
B) Predict printer ink usage
C) Increase RAM
D) Format HDDs
Ans: A
492. Out-of-order execution allows processors to:
A) Execute suitable instructions in an order different from program order while preserving correctness
B) Print out of order
C) Store files randomly
D) Change keyboard layout
Ans: A
493. CPU virtualization extensions support:
A) Hardware-assisted virtualization
B) Printer virtualization only
C) Monitor calibration
D) Disk formatting
Ans: A
494. A virtual machine is:
A) Software-defined emulation/virtualization of a computing environment
B) A physical keyboard
C) A RAM module
D) A printer
Ans: A
495. SIMD refers to:
A) Single Instruction, Multiple Data
B) Single Internet Memory Device
C) System Integrated Memory Data
D) Serial Instruction Memory Device
Ans: A
496. SIMD is useful for:
A) Applying the same operation to multiple data elements
B) Printing one document
C) Cooling a CPU
D) Formatting a disk
Ans: A
497. CPU performance depends on:
A) Architecture, clock frequency, cores, cache and workload
B) Keyboard color only
C) Monitor stand only
D) Printer paper only
Ans: A
498. A NIC is classified as a:
A) Computer peripheral/interface device
B) CPU register
C) Storage filesystem
D) Power cable
Ans: A
499. High-speed memory is important because:
A) CPU processing can be much faster than access to slower memory/storage
B) It increases monitor size
C) It replaces all storage
D) It eliminates software
Ans: A
500. The correct general order from faster to slower in a typical memory hierarchy is:
A) Registers → Cache → RAM → Secondary storage
B) HDD → RAM → Cache → Registers
C) RAM → HDD → Registers → Cache
D) Optical disc → Registers → RAM → Cache
Ans: A